Sunday, August 31, 2014

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012


Law

Question Number: 101-110
 
101. State Executive power is vested with
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
(d) Governor

Ans. (d)

102. “Prime Minister” itself is a separate class.” This was laid down in
(a) Ram Prasad v. State of Bihar
(b) R.K. Garg v. Union of India
(c) State of M.P. v. G.C. Mandavar
(d) P.V. Shastri v. Union of India

Ans. (d)

103. Who can constitute the State Administrative Tribunal under the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985?
(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) Concerned State Government

Ans. (c)

104. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter the Security Council has the power to use force against a State ?
(a) Article 41
(b) Article 2(4)
(c) Article 24
(d) Article 42

Ans. (d)

105. The judgement of International Court of Justice is to be signed by
(a) the President of the Court
(b) the Registrar of the Court
(c) all Judges who heard the case
(d) the President and Registrar of the Court

Ans. (b)

106. Consider the following statements:
1. International law is not a law at all.
2. International law has no judicial system to enforce the law by applying sanctions.
Of the above
(a) Only 1 is true.
(b) Only 2 is true.
(c) Both 1 and 2 are true.
(d) Both 1 and 2 are not true.

Ans. (b)

107. Which one of the following is not a case relating to doctrine of precedent?
(a) Saijan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Prakash Chand Pathak v. State of U.P.
(c) Liversidge v. Anderson
(d) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar

Ans. (c)

108. Which one of the following schools of legal through held the view that, “Law is found not made, it is self existent.”?
(a) Historical School
(b) Analytical School
(c) Sociological School
(d) Realistic School

Ans. (c)

109. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court over-ruled its own precedent for, the first time?
(a) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) Bengal Immunity Co. v. State of Bihar
(d) Keshav Mills Co. v. Income-tax Commissioner.

Ans. (c)

110. “Law is what the judges declares”. This statement relates to which of the following thinkers?
(a) Jerome Frank
(b) Julius Stone
(c) Gray
(d) Holmes

Ans. (c)


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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 101-110
 
101. ‘All India Harijan Sangh’ was founded in 1932 by
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) K. Rangarao

Ans. (c)

102. Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts has three Regional Centres in India. From the following, find out which one of the cities does not have a Regional Centre.
(a) Bangaluru
(b) Udiapur
(c) Varanasi
(d) Guwahati

Ans. (b)

103. ‘Third Anglo-Maratha War’ took place during the period of which Governor General?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Hastings

Ans. (d)

104. National Counter Terrorism Centre (NCTC) proposal has been accused of arming an Intelligence Agency with
(a) Police Powers
(b) Intelligence gathering power
(c) Power of analysis
(d) Power of preparing threat perceptions

Ans. (a)

105. Which is the first country to withdraw itself from “Kyoto Protocol Treaty” in December, 2011?
(a) Russia
(b) India
(c) Canada
(d) Bangladesh

Ans. (c)

106. ‘Growth with Justice’ was major objective of which of the following Five Year Plans of India?
(a) 1st Five Year Plan
(b) 5th Five Year Plan
(c) 9th Five Year Plan
(d) 11th Five Year Plan

Ans. (c)

107. As per figures of Census 2011, the sex-ratio of children in the age-group of 0-6 years in India is
(a) 912
(b) 913
(c) 914
(d) 915

Ans. (c)

108. ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan’ covers
(a) All children in age group 3 - 10
(b) All children in age group 4 - 8
(c) All children in age group 5 - 15
(d) All children in age group 6 – 14

Ans. (d)

109. Which of the following is not considered a money market instrument?
(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Shares and Bonds
(d) Repurchase Agreement

Ans. (c)

110. Which is the only State in India to have the Common Civil Code?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Goa
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland

Ans. (b)


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Saturday, August 30, 2014

Solved Paper | HCS(JB) Pre 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

HCS (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

Question Number: 81-90

81. A confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible under:
a. Section 29 of Evidence Act
b. Section26 of Evidence Act
c. Section 25 of Evidence Act
d. Section 27 of Evidence Act

Ans. b

82. A co-defendant in a case
a. cannot be cross-examined by another co-defendant under any circumstance
b. can be cross-examined by another co-defendant if their interests are identical
c. can be cross-examined by another co-defendant when their interests adverse to each other
d. can be cross-examined by another co-defendant as a matter of right.

Ans. c

83. A dying declaration
a. can form the sole basis of conviction without any corroboration by independent evidence
b. can form the basis of conviction only on corroboration by independent witness
c. can not form the sole basis of conviction unless corroborated by independent witness
d. is not a substantive piece of evidence

Ans. a

84. A husband or wife are permitted to disclose any communication between them during marriage:
a. in civil proceedings between the parties
b. in criminal proceedings between the parties
c. in matrimonial proceedings between the parties
d. all the above

Ans. d

85. Admissions
a. are conclusive proof of the matters admitted
b. are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as estoppel
c. are conclusive proof of the matter and also operate as estoppel
d. none of the above

Ans. b

86. Alibi is governed by
a. Section9 of Evidence Act
b. Section 12 of Evidence Act
c. Section 10 of Evidence Act
d. Section 11 of Evidence Act

Ans. d

87. Burden of introducing evidence under Section 102 of Evidence Act
a. never shifts
b. occasionally shifts
c. constantly shifts
d. only(a) and not (b) or (c)

Ans. c

88. Burden of proof is lightened by
a. presumption
b. admissions
c. estoppels
d. all of the above

Ans. d

89. Contents of a document under Section 59 of Evidence Act
a. can be proved by oral evidence
b. cannot be proved by oral evidence
c. mayor may not be proved by oral evidence
d. can only be proved by oral evidence under the order of the court

Ans. b

90. Estoppel
a. is a cause of action in itself
b. creates a cause of action
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
d. neither (a) nor (b) is correct

Ans. d


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Friday, August 29, 2014

Recruitment Notification | Tamilnadu Civil Judge Exam 2014

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission

Name of Post: Civil Judge in Tamil Nadu State Judicial Service
No. of Posts: 162
Pay-Scale: Rs.27700 - 44770

Age Limit (As on 01.07.2014):
 
(i) For Practising Advocates / Pleaders and Assistant Public Prosecutors -
  • Minimum Age Limit: 25 Years
  • Maximum Age Limit: 35 years (For General Category); 40 years (For Reserved Categories)
(ii) For Fresh Law Graduates ( For all Categories) -
  • Minimum Age Limit: 22 Years
  • Maximum Age Limit: 27 Years
Minimum Qualifications:

(i) For Practising Advocates / Pleaders and Assistant Public Prosecutors:
  • Must possess a degree in Law of a University in India established or incorporated by or under a Central Act or a State Act or an Institution recognised by the University Grants Commission or any other equivalent qualification and got enrolled in the Bar Council of Tamil Nadu, and in the case of candidates enrolled in the Bar Councils of other States, they should submit a proof of transfer of their enrolment to the Bar Council of Tamil Nadu; and
  • (a) Must be practising as an Advocate or Pleader in the High Court or Courts Subordinate thereto and must have so practised for not less than 3 years on the date of this Notification. or
  • (b) Must be an Assistant Public Prosecutor having not less than 3 years of experience as an Advocate and / or Assistant Public Prosecutor.
(ii) For Fresh Law Graduates:
  • Must be a fresh Law Graduate possessing a Degree in Law from a recognized University as mentioned in Clause-I (i) above;
  • Must be eligible to be enrolled or enrolled as an advocate;
  • Must have secured an overall percentage of (a) 50% Marks in case of open categories; (b) 45% Marks in case of all reserved categories.
  • Must have obtained the Degree of Law within a period of three years prior to the Date of this Notification.
How to Apply: Apply Online
Last Date: 21.09.2014
Date of Written Exam: 18.10.2014 & 19.10.2014

For further details, visit the link below- 

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 91-100
 
91. Which one of the following cases related to dying declaration?
(a) Mehboob Shah v. King Emperor
(b) Queen v. Abdullah
(c) Kotayya v. King Emperor
(d) M.C. Vergese v. Ponane

Ans. (b)

92. To what facts of the following, the rules or relevancy have been discussed under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Motive
(b) Preparation
(c) Previous or subsequent conduct
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

93. Which of the following statement is incorrect under Transfer of Property Act?
(a) Right to Redemption belongs to mortgagee.
(b) Right of Foreclosure belongs to mortgagor.
(c) Right of Redemption can be abrogated.
(d) Right of Foreclosure can be abrogated.

Ans. (c)

94. Which of the following is not an essential element of gift?
(a) Donor and Donee
(b) Subject-matter
(c) Transfer of subject-matter
(d) Transfer must be for consideration

Ans. (d)

95. For the lease of immovable property, the tenure for more than one year of year to year:
(a) The attestation of notary is sufficient.
(b) It is valid if the execution of it is made before the Magistrate only
(c) It is sufficient, if the parties made an agreement.
(d) Only registration is sufficient.

Ans. (c)

96. The word, “secular” used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India means
(a) The State has no religion of its own.
(b) All religions are treated equally.
(c) The State has no common religion.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

Ans. (a)

97. Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution by
(a) 74th Amendment
(b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 65th Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment

Ans. (a)

97. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978 was
(a) Amended Article 32
(b) Deleted Article 31 and introduced Article 300A
(c) Deleted Article 32 from Part III of the Constitution.
(d) Introduced a new Article 300 in the Constitution.

Ans. (b)

99. In Re Berubari and Exchange of Enclaves the Supreme Court held that
(a) Rule of law is not a part of Constitution
(b) Rule of law is a part of Constitution
(c) Preamble is not a part of Constitution
(d) Preamble is a part of Constitution

Ans. (c)

100. How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Six
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Three

Ans. (c)


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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 91-100
 
91. Eligibility for re-election of the President is provided under
(a) Article 56
(b) Article 57
(c) Article 58
(d) Article 59

Ans. (b)

92. Indian Science Congress 2012 was held in
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Chennai
(c) Bhubaneshwar
(d) Kolkata

Ans. (c)

93. With reference to the conduct of Government business in the Parliament, the term “Closure” refers to
(a) suspension of debtate at the termination of a day’s sitting of the Parliament
(b) the termination of a Parliamentary Session
(c) refusal of the Government of have the Opposition a look at important documents
(d) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted.

Ans. (d)

94. Name the Constitutional Amendment reducing voting age of voter from 21 years to 18 years.
(a) 59th Amendment
(b) 60th Amendment
(c) 61st Amendment
(d) 62nd Amendment

Ans. (c)

95. Who of the following represented Congress at the 2nd Round Table Conference?
(a) Sardar Patel
(b) C.R. Das
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans. (d)

96. Which one of the following pairs is not properly matched?
(a) 42nd Constitution Amendment - Fundamental Duties
(b) 52nd Constitution Amendment - Anti Defection Law
(c) 73rd Constitution Amendment - Panchayati Raj
(d) 84th Constitution Amendment - Centre-State relations

Ans. (d)

97. Which of the following conditions/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?
(1) The must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their fanchise.
(2) NRIs whether they have acquired the citizenship of of another country or not are eligible to vote.
(3) Eligible NRIs have to register by filling Form 6-A with Electroal Registration Office.
Select the correct answer using the given code:
Code:
(a) (1) , (2) and (3)
(b) (1) and (3) only
(c) Only (2)
(d) Only (3)

Ans. (b)

98. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the adjudication of disputes relating to water of inter-State rivers or river-valleys is done?
(a) Article 260
(b) Article 261
(c) Article 262
(d) Article 263

Ans. (c)

99. The campaign for widow-remarriage in Maharashtra was led by
(a) Vishnu Parasuman Pandit
(b) B.M. Malabari
(c) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(d) Dadabahai Naoroji

Ans. (a)

100. Part IX of the Indian Constitution regarding Panchayats was included in the Constitution in pursuance to which Article concerning Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Article 39
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 41
(d) Article 42

Ans. (b)


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Thursday, August 28, 2014

Solved Paper | HCS(JB) Pre 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

HCS (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

Question Number: 71-80

71. Fight under Section 159 of IPC signifies
a. two opposite parties actively involved
b. two parties one of which is passive
c. two parties both of which are passive
d. none of the above

Ans. a

72. Misconduct in public by a drunken person is
a. public mischief.
b. annoyance
c. intentional insult
d. all of the above

Ans. b

73. Which of the following is defamation:
a. X says, "Y is an honest man, he never stole Z's watch," intending to cause it to be believed that Y did steal Z's watch.
b.X is asked, "who stole Z's watch?" X points to Y.
c. X draws a picture of Y running away with Z's watch.
d. All of the above.

Ans. d

74. Assault can be caused by
a. gestures
b. preparations
c. both (a) & (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

Ans. c

75. Trespass being made in a surreptitious manner (concealment) is called
a. house-trespass
b. house-breaking
c. lurking house-trespass
d. none of the above

Ans. c

76. The word 'takes' in Section 361of IPC signifies
a. taking by force
b. taking by fraud
c. physical taking
d. all the above

Ans. c

77. The expression 'harm' is used in Section 81 of the Indian Penal Code in the sense of
a. hurt
b. injury or damage
c. physical injury
d. moral wrong or evil

Ans. b

78. Which one of the following is not a "Public Servant":-
a. liquidator
b. a Civil Judge
c. member of a panchayat assisting a Court of Justice
d. secretary of a Co-operative Society

Ans. d

79. The causing of death of child in the mother's womb is not homicide under
a. Indian law only
b. English law only
c. Both English and Indian law
d. neither in Indian law nor in English law

Ans. c

80. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of Indian Penal Code is
a. that whereas in Section 34 there must at least be five persons, Section 149 requires only two persons
b. that Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific offence and provides for its punishment
c. that Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149 requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly .
d. that Section 34 need not be joined with the principle offence, whereas Section 149 must be combined with the principle offence.

Ans. c


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Wednesday, August 27, 2014

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 81-90
 
81. “A” puts jewels into a box belonging to “B” with the intention that they may be found in that box, with the result that ‘B’ may be convicted for the offence of theft. ‘A’ has committed the offence under
(a) Section 191 of Indian Penal Code
(b) Section 192 of Indian Penal Code
(c) Section 193 of Indian Penal Code
(d) ‘A’ has committed no offence

Ans. (b)

82. ‘X’ drives very fast through a crowded road to catch a flight, knowing that his act in all probability may cause death ‘Y’ is killed by his vehicle. ‘X’ is guilty of
(a) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(b) murder
(c) grievous hurt
(d) negligence

Ans. (b)

83. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with voluntary intoxication?
(a) Section 84
(b) Section 85
(c) Section 86
(d) Section 87

Ans. (b)

84. When was the RIO Declaration on Environment and Development made?
(a) In June 1992
(b) In December 1989
(c) In June 1997
(d) In September 2002

Ans. (a)

85. The International Labour Organization (ILO) on December 10, 2011 released a report on the employment scenario in
(a) Oman
(b) Iraq
(c) Pakistan
(d) Afghanistan

Ans. (d)

86. Copenhagen Accord on climate change is
(a) a binding treaty
(b) not a binding treaty
(c) a declaration of General Assembly
(d) an optional protocol

Ans. (b)

87. Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 the term “offence” has been defined?
(a) Section 40
(b) Section 2(n)
(c) Section 2(w)
(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

88. The Parliament of which country signed on CTBT on 6th December, 2011?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Iraq
(c) Australia
(d) Pakistan

Ans. (a)

89. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, the Collector may be appointed as receiver?
(a) Order XL Rule 5
(b) Order XLI Rule 1
(c) Order XL Rule 2
(d) Order XLI Rule 2

Ans. (a)
 

90. A receiver is an
(a) officer of the court
(b) agent of the plaintiff
(c) agent of the defendant
(d) agent of the parties to the suit

Ans. (a)


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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 81-90
 
81. “Dhupgarh” is the highest peak of
(a) Vindhyan Range
(b) Satpura Range
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Sahyadris

Ans. (b)

82. Which one of the following is not imported in India?
(a) Cotton
(b) Iron Ore
(c) Petroleum
(d) Machinery

Ans. (b)

83. Which of the following crops is not of Indian origin?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Mango

Ans. (a)

84. Which one of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?
(a) Committee on Public Accounts
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Committee on Estimates
(d) Demand for Grants Committee

Ans. (d)

85. What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Nagaland
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Haryana
Find your answer from given code:
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Ans. (a)

86. Members of State Election Commission are appointed by
(a) President of India
(b) Home Minister of India
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Governor of the State

Ans. (d)

87. Who can legislate on the subjects which are not included in any lists of subjects given in the Indian Constitutions?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Union Parliament
(c) State Legislature
(d) Regional Councils

Ans. (b)

88. Which one of the following legislation has to be passed by both Houses of Parliament separately with special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitutional Amendment Bill

Ans. (d)

89. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the ideal of Welfare State?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Preamble
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy.

Ans. (d)

90. Under the Provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State may
(1) withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature.
(2) reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature consideration of the President.
(3) return the bill other than the Money Bill for reconsideration of the Legislature
Select the correct answer using the given code:
Code:
(a) (1) only
(b) (1), (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (3) only
(d) (2) and (3) only

Ans. (b)


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Tuesday, August 26, 2014

Solved Paper | HCS(JB) Pre 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

HCS (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

Question Number: 61-70
 
61. The maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat' means:
a. ignorance of law is no excuse
b. ignorance of fact is no excuse
c. ignorance of law is an excuse
d. ignorance of fact is an excuse

Ans. a

62. Section 76 & Section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of
a. mistake of law
b. mistake of fact
c. both mistake of law and fact
d. either mistake of law or of fact

Ans. b

63. A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of
a. Section 76 of IPC
b. Section 78 of IPC
c. Section 77 of IPC
d. Section 80 of IPC

Ans. b

64. "A",with the intention to kill, shoots aiming at "B", instead "c" gets killed. The principle for holding "A" liable is known as
a. The doctrine of intention
b. The doctrine of transferred malice
c. The doctrine that no one can escape
d. None of these

Ans. b

65. The right to private defence is based on the natural instinct of
a. self-preservation
b. self-respect
c. self-sufficiency
d. self-reliance

Ans. a

66. Section 511 does not apply in the case of
a. attempt of riot
b. attempt of murder
c. attempt of theft
d. attempt of affray

Ans. b

67. The essence of sedition is
a. intention
b. benefits or gains of the accused
c. result
d. both intention and result.

Ans. a

68. A mental pain is
a. also covered under the offence of simple hurt.
b. not covered under the offence of simple hurt.
c. sometimes covered under the offence of simple hurt.
d. none of the above.

Ans. b

69. Under Indian Penal Code, there can be abetment to
a. a person of unsound mind
b. an infant
c. both (a) & (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

Ans. c
 

70. In which of the following cases, the punishment must be 'simple'
a. Refusing to take oath.
b. Disobedience to an order duly promulgated by a public servant.
c. Wrongful restraint.
d. All of the above.

Ans. d


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Monday, August 25, 2014

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 71-80
 
71. Which one of the following is a continuing offence?
(a) Abduction
(b) Rape
(c) Theft
(d) Abetment

Ans. (a)

72. Under Section 362 of Indian Penal Code the offence of abduction may be committed with
(a) a girl under 18 years of age
(b) a boy under 16 years of age
(c) a person of unsound mind
(d) None of the above is correct

Ans. (d)

73. “A” a police officer without warrant apprehends “Z” who has committed murder. “A” has committed the offence of
(a) wrongful confinement
(b) wrongful restraint
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) no offence

Ans. (d)

74. “In every statute mens-rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown.” This view was expressed in
(a) Sheras v. De-Rutzen
(b) R v. Dudley & Stephen
(c) Harding v. Price
(d) R v. Prince

Ans. (a)

75. “A” in India instigates “B” a foreigner in Pakistan to commit a murder in Pakistan. “B” commits murder. In this case
(a) ‘A’ is guilty of abetting murder
(b) ‘A’ is not guilty of any offence
(c) ‘A’ is liable for committing murder
(d) None of the above answer is correct

Ans. (a)

76. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Mens-rea - R v. Prince
(b) Necessity - D.P.P. v. Beard
(c) Insanity - Mc. Naghtens
(d) Intoxication - Basudeo v. State of Pepsu

Ans. (b)

77. ‘A’ commits theft on property in ‘B’ possession and while committing theft he has a loaded pistol under his garment kept for the purpose of hurting ‘B’ in case ‘B’ resists.
The offence committed by ‘A’ is defined under which section of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Section - 382
(b) Section - 379
(c) Section - 390
(d) Section – 381

Ans. (a)

78. The principal of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant, while deciding the liability for the offence of
(a) theft and dacoity
(b) culpable homicide and murder
(c) kidnapping and abduction
(d) abetment and conspiracy

Ans. (c)

79. Theft is an offence against
(a) a person
(b) immovable property
(c) movable property
(d) both movable and immovable property

Ans. (c)

80. A married man commits the offence of adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a
(a) unmarried woman
(b) married woman except his wife
(c) any woman except his wife
(d) unmarried woman without her consent

Ans. (b)


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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 71-80
 
71. Who among the following was the 1st Indian to clear the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Satyendra Nath Tagore

Ans. (d)

72. With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru Report 1928?
(1) Dominion status for India in the first stage.
(2) Reservation of seats for minorities.
(3) Provision for Fundamental Rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Select your answer from given code:
Code:
(a) Only (1)
(b) (2) and (3) only
(c) (1) and (2) only
(d) All the above.

Ans. (c)

73. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was closely associated with which of the following women-reforms?
(a) Sati Pratha
(b) Female Education
(c) Purdah System
(d) Infanticide

Ans. (b)

74. The Asteroid Belt is found between which of the following?
(a) Earth and Mrs
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Mars and Jupiter
(d) Saturn and Uranus

Ans. (c)

75. Which one of the following is the largest satellite in Solar System?
(a) Ganymede
(b) Titan
(c) Europa
(d) Triton

Ans. (a)

76. Match Lists – I and II and select the correct answer from the code given below:-
List- I (Industry)
A. Paper 
B. Cement 
C. Iron & Steel 
D. Mineral Oil Refinery 
List- II (Places)
1. Ambala Mukul
2. Bhilai
3.Titagarh
4. Lakheri
Code:
    A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 3 1 4

Ans. (b)

77. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Indian Ocean?
(a) It covers 20% of water of earth surface.
(b) It touches three Continents
(c) Its Northern boundary is marked by Southern end of Persian Gulf.
(d) It is delineated by 200 Meridian to Atlantic Ocean.

Ans. (c)

78. The World’s highest “Rail Bridge” under construction in the State of Jammu & Kashmir will be on which of the following rivers?
(a) Chenab
(b) Jhelum
(c) Indus
(d) Ravi

Ans. (a)

79. The largest producer of Silver in India is
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar

Ans. (b)

80. Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Ravi
(c) Chenab
(d) Beas

Ans. (a)


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Sunday, August 24, 2014

Solved Paper | HCS(JB) Pre 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011


HCS (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

Question Number: 51-60
51. Under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC, an application for amendment of pleadings can be allowed .
a. before the commencement of trial
b. after the commencement of trial
c. either before or after the commencement of trial
d. none of the above

Ans. a

52. Under .Section 315 of Cr.PC
a. an accused cannot be a witness
b. an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence generally
c. an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing
d. either (a) or (b)

Ans. c

53. Under Section 439 of Cr.PC, the jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests with:
a. The Court of Sessions
b. The High Court
c. The Court of Magistrate
d. Only(a) &(b)

Ans. d

54. With reference to Crime response the following:
a. it is a state wrong
b. it is a civil wrong
c. it is a private wrong
d. none of the above

Ans. a

55. Actus reus includes:
a. positive (intentional doing) as well as negative (intentional non-doing. ie.omission) acts.
b. only positive acts.
c. external (bodily) as well as internal (mind) acts
d. both (a) and (c)

Ans. d

56. Section 34 of IPC
a. creates a substantive offence
b. is a rule of evidence
c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

Ans. b

57. Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime. Preparation is not punishable generally but attempt is. One basic reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there:
a. is no nexus between preparation and attempt.
b. can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence
c. is absence of intention.
d. is absence of attempt.

Ans. b

58. Illegal signifies:
a. everything which is an offence
b. everything which is prohibited by law
c. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
d. all the above

Ans. d

59. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:
a. three
b. six
c. five
d. four

Ans. c

60. Second appeal under Section 100 of CPC lies
a. on question off acts
b. on substantial questions of law
c. on mixed question of law & fact
d. none of the above

Ans. b 

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Saturday, August 23, 2014

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 61-70
 
61. The interpretation clause of the Indian Contract Act 1872 has been provided in
(a) Section 1
(b) Section 2
(c) Section 3
(d) Under none of the above.

Ans. (b)

62. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is
(a) Unenforceable
(b) Voidable
(c) Wrongful
(d) Void

Ans. (d)

63. “A” promises to obtain for “B” an employment in the public service and “B” promises to pay Rs. 1000 to “A”. The agreement is
(a) Legal
(b) Can be enforced at the option of the parties.
(c) Void
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

64. State the correct answer.
If object of an agreement is forbidden by law, the agreement is
(a) void only but not illegal
(b) illegal only but not void
(c) both void as well as illegal
(d) voidable

Ans. (c)

65. The word ‘illegal’ is applicable to everything which
(a) is an offence
(b) is prohibited by law
(c) furnishes ground for civil action
(d) All the above.

Ans. (d)

66. What is not necessary to constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy?
(a) Two or more person
(b) Five or more person
(c) Agreement to cause illegal act or an act by illegal means
(d) If act is not crime, to do some act in pursuance of agreement

Ans. (b)

67. ‘A’ knowing that her husband ‘B’ has committed murder, knowingly conceals in order to screen him from legal punishment, “A” is liable for
(a) Murder by reason of having common intention
(b) Harbouring
(c) Abetment by aid
(d) “A” has committed no offence

Ans. (d)

68. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with Dowry death?
(a) Section 304 B
(b) Section 364 A
(c) Section 363 A
(d) Section 366 B

Ans. (a)

69. “A” and “B” plan to murder “C”, the next day. They are guilty of
(a) the offence of planning
(b) the offence of criminal conspiracy
(c) the offence of attempting to murder
(d) no offence

Ans. (b)

70. Which offence does not require a minimum number of five persons?
(a) Unlawful Assembly
(b) Riot
(c) Robbery
(d) Dacoity

Ans. (c) 

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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 61-70
 
61. Who among the following were prominent women revolutionaries during India’s Freedom Movement?
1. Shanti Gosh
2. Suniti Chaudhary
3. Bina Das
4. Kalpana Dutt (Joshi)

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)
62. The biggest hoard of Gupta Gold Coins was found from
(a) Basti
(b) Bayana
(c) Hazipur
(d) Hugli

Ans. (b)

63. Who among the following European Travellers visited India during the reign of Jahagir and left valuable account of his rign?
1. William Hawkins
2. William Finch
3. Francisco Palsaert

Indicate your answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)
64. The 1st exclusively Hindi language newspaper ‘Udant Martand’ was published from Kanpur in 1826. Its editor was
(a) Pandit Sadal Misra
(b) Pandit Jugal Kishore Shukla
(c) Bhartendu Harishchandra
(d) Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi

Ans. (b)

65. Who encouraged the practice of ladies accompanying their husbands to the battlefield?
(a) Madho Rao
(b) Raghunath Rao
(c) Balaji Rao
(d) Sadashiv Rao

Ans. (d)

66. The 1st newspaper published from India was
(a) The Bengal Gazette
(b) The Calcutta Gazette
(c) The Calcutta Chronicle
(d) The India Gazette

Ans. (a)

67. Who amongst the following made the greatest contribution to improve the condition of widows and promote female education in Maharashra?
(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) D.K. Karve
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Behramji Malabari

Ans. (b)

68. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a Satyagraha on behalf of peasants of Kheda?
(1) The administration did not suspend the Land Revenue collection in spite of a drought.
(2) The administration proposed to introduce permanent settlement in Gujarat.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Choose your answer with the help of given code:
Code:
(a) (1) only
(b) (2) only
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) None of these statements

Ans. (a)
69. Which one of the following socio-religious movements raised the slogan “India is for Indians”?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Satya Shodhak Samaj

Ans. (a)

70. When was the ‘Sangeet Natak Academy’ established in independent India?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953

Ans. (d)


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Friday, August 22, 2014

Solved Paper | HCS(JB) Pre 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

HCS (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

Question Number: 41-50
 
41. In a bailable offence:
a. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer
b. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the court
c. no condition can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer or by the court
d. only mild conditions can be imposed by the court only

Ans. c

42. In case where an inquiry, trial or other proceedings have been conducted in a wrong place:
a. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings shall be void ab initio
b. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings cannot be set aside as void unless it has occasioned in failure of justice
c. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings, cannot be set aside even if it has occasioned in failure of justice
d. either (a) or (c)

Ans. b

43. In computing the period of limitation the time during which
a. the accused avoided arrest by absconding has to be excluded
b. the accused remained absent from India has to be excluded
c. both (a) & (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

Ans. c

44. Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been stated in
a. Section 460 of Cr.P.C
b. Section 461 of Cr.P.C
c. Section 462 of Cr.P.C
d. Section 466 of Cr.P.C

Ans. a

45. Objection as to the lack of territorial jurisdiction of the criminal court:
a. can be taken before or at the time of commencement of trial
b. can be taken at any time after the commencement of trial
c. can be taken in appeal for the first time
d. all the above.

Ans. a

46. Power to recall any witness(es) under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised:
a. even after the evidence of both the sides is closed
b. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed, but before the evidence of defence is closed
c. before the evidence of the prosecution is closed, if the witness is to be calledon the motion of the prosecution
d. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed if the witness is called on themotion of the defence

Ans. a

47. Words 'competent jurisdiction' under Section 39 of CPC refers to
a. pecuniary jurisdiction of transferee court
b. territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
c. pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
d. none of the above

Ans. c

48. Section 428 Cr.P.C provides for concession to the effect that period of detention undergone by accused be set off
a. against the substantive period of imprisonment awarded;
b. against the period of imprisonment in default of payment offine.
c. (a) & (b) above. .
d. none of the above.

Ans. a
49. Under Section 167 of Cr.P.C, the Magistrate can authorise detention for a total period of 90 days during investigation, in cases of offences punishable
a. with death
b. with imprisonment for life
c. with imprisonment for a term not less than 10 years
d. all the above

Ans. d

50. Under Section 216 of Cr.P.C, the Court has the power to:
a. add to the charge(s) already framed
b. alter the charge(s) already framed
c. neither to alter nor to add to the charge already framed
d. add to and alter the charge both

Ans. d


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Thursday, August 21, 2014

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 51-60
 
51. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to
(a) The Constituent Assembly
(b) The Parliament
(c) The whole society
(d) The people of India

Ans. (d)

52. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision of the Constitution?
(a) 51st Amendment
(b) 52nd Amendment
(c) 53rd Amendment
(d) 54th Amendment

Ans. (b)

53. Which one of following does not come within the territorial jurisdiction of Punjab and Haryana High Court?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Delhi

Ans. (d)

54. An agreement in restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is
(a) valid
(b) voidable
(c) void
(d) enforceable

Ans. (c)

55. ‘A’ proposes by letter to sell a house to ‘B’at a certain price. The communication of proposal is complete when
(a) ‘A’ posts the letter
(b) ‘A’ has completed the writing of letter
(c) ‘B’ gets information about the posting of the letter
(d) ‘B’ receives the letter.

Ans. (d)

56. A and B enter into contract due to mistake that a particular debts is time-barred. Contract is
(a) valid
(b) void
(c) illegal
(d) both (b) and (c)

Ans. (a)

57. ‘A’ contract of telephone becomes complete at the place where acceptance is heard’. In which case it has been held?
(a) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal
(b) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(c) Mohribibi v. Dharmodas Ghosh
(d) Satyabratta Ghosh v. Mugneeram.

Ans. (a)

58. A wagering agreement depends on
(a) an uncertain event
(b) future event only
(c) past unascertained only
(d) None of the above events

Ans. (a)

59. Which one of the following is not essential for a contract?
(a) Consideration
(b) Valuable consideration
(c) Lawful consideration
(d) Adequate consideration

Ans. (d)

60. “Continuing Guarantee” has been defined
(a) Under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
(b) Under Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act
(c) Under Section 146 of the Indian Contact Act
(d) Under Section 147 of the Indian Contract Act.

Ans. (b) 

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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 51-60

51. Which gas is used as a coolant in cold storages?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Ammonia
(d) Chlorofluorocarbon

Ans. (c)

52. The 1st Satellite of India sent into space was
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) Rohini
(c) Bhaskar
(d) Apple

Ans. (a)

53. The remote control of a television uses
(a) Infra-red rays
(b) Ultra-violet rays
(c) Visible rays
(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

54. Haripura Session (1938) of Indian National Congress was presided over by
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Sarat Chandra Bose
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Rajendra Prasad

Ans. (a)

55. In which of the following Sessions of Muslim League, had M.A. Jinnah established Two Nations Theory?
(a) Amristsar Session, 1919
(b) Allahabad Session, 1930
(c) Lucknow Session, 1937
(d) Lahore Session, 1940

Ans. (d)

56. Who amongst the following was not a member of the Royal Commission on the Public Services in India, 1912?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Valentine Chirol
(d) Abdur Rahim

Ans. (b)

57. The Santhal Rebellion of 1855-56 resulted in the creation of Santhal Pargana for the Tribes as a separate geographical entity. Who were the leaders associated with the rebellion?
(a) Sidhu and Chakara
(b) Sidhu and Kanu
(c) Chakara and Bogra
(d) Dora and Chakara

Ans. (b)

58. Which region of India was ruled by Sultan Zainul Abidin
(a) Kashmir
(b) Assam
(c) Orissa
(d) Delhi

Ans. (a)
59. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured during a demonstration against
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(c) Cripps Mission
(d) Simon Commission

Ans. (d)

60. Which Viceroy of India was murdered by a convict in Andaman Nicobar Islands while he was on tour?
(a) Lord Rippon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Mayo
(d) Lord Minto

Ans. (c)


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Wednesday, August 20, 2014

Recruitment Notification | District Legal Aid Officers in M.P. Legal Aid Service Authority

Madhya Pradesh State Legal Service Authority, Jabalpur

Name of Post: District Legal Aid Officer
No. of Posts: 18
Pay Scale: Rs. 9300- 34800

Age Limit: 21-35 (as on 01.01.2015)
Minimum Qualification: Law Graduate from any recognized university

How to Apply: Apply Online
Last Date: 10.09.2014
Date of Main Examination (Online): 28.09.2014

For further details and full advertisement, visit the link below-
http://www.mphc.in/pdf/Advt.%20Distt%20L.A.O.%20Exam-2014-190814.pdf 

Solved Paper | HCS(JB) Pre 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

HCS (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination- 2011

Question Number: 31-40

31. Goodwill of a partnership business is the property of the partnership
a. under Section14
b. under Section13
c. under Section12
d. underSection11

Ans. a

32. The State with the highest population density in India is:
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Maharashtra

Ans. b

33. The Indian State with the highest female sex ratio is:
a. Punjab
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Kerata

Ans. d

34. Thefirst recipient of the Bharat Ratna after it was revived in 1980was:
a. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
b. Mother Teresa
c. M.G.Ramachandran
d. V.V.Giri

Ans. b

35. Compulsory dissolution of a firm has been provided under
a. Section 39 of the Act
b. Section 41 of the Act
c. Section 40 of the Act
d. Section 44 of the Act

Ans. b

36. An act done by a partner on behalf of the firm beyond the implied authority
a. can be ratified expressly
b. can be ratified impliedly by conduct
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)

Ans. c

37. After dismissal of a complaint under Section 203, a fresh similar complaint on the same facts
a. is banned
b. is not banned but will be entertained only in exceptional circumstances
c. is not banned and will be entertained in all circumstances
d. either (a) or (c)

Ans. b

38. A new person can be introduced into a firm as a partner under Section 31 of the Act by
a. unanimous consent of all the partners
b. majority consent amongst the partners
c. with the consent of the managing partner
d. none of the above

Ans. a

39. Complaint may relate to:
a. a cognizable offence
b. a non cognizable offence
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
d. must be for a non-cognizable offence as the police has no power to investigate such an offence.

Ans. c

40. If the, person who is competent to compound offence is dead, the compounding
a. cannot be done
b. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased without the permission of the court
c. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased only with the permission of the court.
d. both (b) & (c)

Ans. c 

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Tuesday, August 19, 2014

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 41-50
 
41. “Law is uncertain and certainty of law is a legal myth”. This is the statement of
(a) Jerome Frank
(b) Holmes
(c) Gray
(d) Lievellyn

Ans. (a)

42. The UN’s latest climate talks held in Durban, South Africa, which renewed Kyoto Protocol 1997, concluded on
(a) December 11, 2011
(b) December 12, 2011
(c) December 10, 2011
(d) December 30, 2011

Ans. (a)

43. Which one of the following is not the pre-requisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113-B of Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Victime was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives.
(b) Victim had illicit relationshi8p with other male person.
(c) Such cruelty or harassment was for connections with any demand for dowry.
(d) It was done within 7 years of the marriage.

Ans. (b)


44. One of the most important principles of the law of evidence is that “evidence is to be weighed and not to be counted.” This has been incorporated under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 mainly under
(a) Section 132
(b) Section 133
(c) Section 123
(d) Section 134

Ans. (d)

45. According to whom, “The mater of jurisprudence is positive law, law simply and strictly so called or law set by political superior to political inferiors”?
(a) Allen
(b) Austin
(c) Buckland
(d) Bentham

Ans. (b)

46. The principal jurist of the philosophical school was
(a) Herbert Spencer
(b) Sir Henry Maine
(c) Max Weber
(d) Hegel

Ans. (d)

47. Which one of the following is not a kind of agricultural lease?
(a) Lease for cultivation of Indigo.
(b) Lease for cultivation of vegetables
(c) Lease for rearing tea plants.
(d) Lease for gathering fruits from trees.

Ans. (d)

48. “Every sale accompanied by agreement for re-conveyance of property would not constitute mortgage by conditional sale”.
(a) Section 55
(b) Section 56
(c) Section 58
(d) Section 60

Ans. (c)

49. Who of the following author is said as father of English jurisprudence, namely
(a) Austin
(b) Bentham
(c) Salmond
(d) Roscoe Pound

Ans. (a)

50. Reasonable time for the performance of a contract is a question of
(a) fact
(b) law
(c) fact and law
(d) prudence

Ans. (a) 

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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 41-50
 
41. ‘PERT’ is a technique used for which one of the following?
(a) Electric Power Transmission
(b) Project Management
(c) Railway Safety
(d) Internet

Ans. (b)

42. “Alma” is the world’s biggest telescope and is one of the greatest achievements of 21st Century. It is expected to give surprise to the scientific world by probing deep mysteries of the space. It is installed in
(a) Chile
(b) Japan
(c) Yugoslavia
(d) South Africa

Ans. (a)

43. Of the two bulbs in a house one glows brighter than the other. Which of the two has larger resistance?
(a) Bright bulb
(b) Dim bulb
(c) Both bulbs have same resistance
(d) The brightness does not depend or resistance

Ans. (b)

44. An artificial satellite orbiting around the earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of the Earth.
(a) does not exist at such a distance
(b) is neutralized by the attraction of Moon.
(c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

Ans. (d)
45. Chemical used to preserve food material is
(a) Caustic Soda
(b) Sodium Benzoate
(c) Sodium Chloride
(d) Sodium bi-carbonate

Ans. (b)

46. Which one of the following is not biodegradable?
(a) Woolen mat
(b) Silver foil
(c) Leather bag
(d) Jute basket

Ans. (b)

47. Name the world famous space scientist who despite bring paralysed for nearly three decades took a zero-gravity flight in 2007.
(a) Stephen Hawking
(b) Jerry Shay
(c) Abdus Salem
(d) Mohammed Elbaradel

Ans. (a)

48. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I
A. Mammography
B. Angiography
C. Endoscopy
D. Ultrasonography

List- II
1. Rectum
2. Uterus
3. Breast
4. Blood Vessels
Code:
     A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (c)

49. Depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere enhances the risk of
(a) Global warming
(b) Acid rain
(c) Skin caner
(d) Brain damage

Ans. (c)

50. Which bio-metre indices are used in making AADHAR card of a person?
(a) Face and finger-prints
(b) Eye & ear
(c) Pupil and finger prints
(d) Face and pupil

Ans. (c) 

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