Question Paper | HCS(JB) (Pre) 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Exam- 2011

Monday, June 30, 2014

HCS (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Examination 2011

Question Number: 01-10

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy as embodied in Chapter IV of the Constitution were derived by us from:-
a. The Constitution of Ireland
b. The Constitution of U.S.S.R.
c. The Constitution of Switzerland
d. The Gandhian Constitution for Free India

2. State which of the following statements is correct:
a. Preamble is not part of the Constitution
b. Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic structure.
c. Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to the Constitution.
d. Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution

3. State which of the following statements is correct:-
a. The American doctrine of waiver of fundamental rights is part of the Indian Constitution. .
b. No person can waive his fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution as they are sacrosanct and no individual can tinker with them.
c. A non-citizen can waive his fundamental rights.
d. A citizen can waive his fundamental rights which are for his individual benefit.

4. The right to equality means that no person is above law. To this rule, certain exceptions are recognized. State which of the following come under the exception:
a. President of India
b. Ambassador of USA.
c..Judges of the High Courts.
d. All the above

5. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities?
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Certiorari
d. Quo Warranto

6. State which of the following statements is incorrect:
a. A writ can be issued against the High Court.
b. Government of India and State Governments.
c. Any authority under the power and control of the Government of India.
d. Parliament or a State Legislature.

7. The Directive Principles are:-
a. justiciable the same way as the fundamental rights.
b. justiciable though not the same way as the fundamental rights.
c. decorative portions of the Indian Constitution.
d. not justiciable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country

8.Which coin out of the following has been withdrawn by RBI in 2011:
a. 20Paisa
b. 10 paisa
c. 25Paisa
d. 5 paisa

9. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Council of Minister should not exceed:-
a. 20%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
b. 15%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
c. 20%of the total number of members of Rajya Sabha.
d. 15%of the total number of members of both the Houses.

10. Whohas been conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 2011.
a. Abhinav Bindra
b. Gagan Narang
c. Kapil Dev
d. Sachin Tendulkar

 
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Question Paper | HCS(JB) (Pre) 2011 | Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch) Preliminary Exam- 2011SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Question Paper | Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam- 2013

Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2013

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & LAW


Part – I
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Question Number: 01-10

1. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Union Public Service Commission

2. By which Constitutional Amendment the number of ministers have been limited to 15% of the total number of members of the lower house ?
(a) Ninety First Amendment
(b) Ninety Second Amendment
(c) Ninetieth Amendment
(d) None of the above

3. Point out the mismatched pair :
(a) Power of Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State list in the national interest– Article 249
(b) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a proclamation of emergency is in operation– Article 250
(c) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent – Article 251
(d) Legislation for giving effect to international agreements – Article 253

4. Which one of the following is not an essential elements of a State in international law ?
(a) Population
(b) Armed forces
(c) Territory
(d) Capacity to enter into relation with other States

5. The name of the first woman judge of the International Court of Justice is
(a) Rosalyn Higgins
(b) Rosa E. Oturnbayeva
(c) Gertrude Mongella
(d) Sadako Ogata

6. Point out the mismatched pair :
(a) Chiranjitlal V/s Union of India (1950) – Article 14
(b) Dinesh Trivedi V/s Union of India (1997) – Article 19
(c) Sunil Batra V/s Delhi Administration (1978) – Article 21
(d) Bhim Singh V/s State of J & K (1986) – Article 29

7. Read the following carefully :
Statement (1) : Recognition is a process through which a political community acquires international personality by becoming a member of family of nation.
Statement (2) : Hegel, Anzilloti and Oppenheim are chief exponents of Constitutive theory of recognition.
Of the above :
(a) Only (1) is true.
(b) Only (2) is true.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true.
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.

8. Who said “Inclusion of any matter in the agenda of General Assembly, discussion on it, its study or the passing of a General Resolution would not amount to intervention” ?
(a) Prof. Hans Kelsen
(b) Prof. Quincy Wright
(c) Oppenheim
(d) None of the above

9. A Member of Parliament of India or Member of Legislative Assembly of a State cannot be arrested in a civil action within a period of _______ before or after the session.
(a) 40 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 55 days

10. ‘Zonal Council’ in India is
(a) Dispute Settling Agency
(b) Law Making Body
(c) Advisory Body
(d) Administrative Body

 

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Result | Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer (Preliminary) Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 01/2013]

Bihar Public Service Commission has declared the result of Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 01/2013].

The Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 01/2013] was held on 29.03.2014. Total 838 candidates have qualified for the Main Written Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 01/2013]. Result of Preliminary Examination is available at the official website of Bihar Public Service Commission.

For further details and the result, visit the link below-
http://www.bpsc.bih.nic.in/Advt/Results-41-42-2011-01-2013%28PRE%29.pdf 

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Result | Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer (Preliminary) Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011]

Bihar Public Service Commission has declared the result of Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011].

The Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011] was held on 30.03.2014. Total 853 candidates have qualified for the Main Written Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011]. Result of Preliminary Examination is available at the official website of Bihar Public Service Commission.

For further details and the result, visit the link below-
http://www.bpsc.bih.nic.in/Advt/Results-41-42-2011-01-2013%28PRE%29.pdf 

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Result | Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer (Preliminary) Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011]SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Result | Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer (Preliminary) Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 41/2011]

Bihar Public Service Commission has declared the result of Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 41/2011].

The Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 41/2011] was held on 01.03.2014. Total 856 candidates have qualified for the Main Written Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 41/2011]. Result of Preliminary Examination is available at the official website of Bihar Public Service Commission.

For further details and the result, visit the link below-
http://www.bpsc.bih.nic.in/Advt/Results-41-42-2011-01-2013%28PRE%29.pdf 

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Exam Schedule | Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service (Main) Exam 2014

Monday, June 23, 2014

Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission has announced the Programme for the Main Examination of Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service, 2014.

The Main Examination of Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service, 2014 will be held on 15th July, 2014 to 18th July, 2014. The Exam Schedule is as follows:

15.07.2014: 10.00 A.M. to 1.00 P.M.: Civil Law-I
16.07.2014: 10.00 A.M. to 1.00 P.M.: Civil Law-II
17.07.2014: 10.00 A.M. to 1.00 P.M.: Criminal Law
18.07.2014: 10.00 A.M. to 1.00 P.M.: English Composition
18.07.2014: 02.00 P.M. to 5.00 P.M.: Hindi

For further details, visit the link below-
http://www.hp.gov.in/hppsc/file.axd?file=2014%2f6%2fHPJS+%28Preliminary%29+Examination-+2014.pdf 

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Result | Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam 2014

Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission has declared the result of Preliminary Examination of Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service, 2014.

The Preliminary Examination of Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service, 2014 were held on 18th May, 2014. The list of the candidates who have been declared qualified for Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services (Main) examination, is available at the official website of Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission.

For further details and the list of qualified candidates, visit the link below-
http://www.hp.gov.in/hppsc/file.axd?file=2014%2f6%2fHPJS+%28Preliminary%29+Examination-+2014.pdf 

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Exam Schedule | Jharkhand Civil Judge (Junior Division) Main Written Exam 2014

Jharkhand Public Service Commission has announced the Programme of the Main Written Examination of Jharkhand Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2014.

The Main Written Examination of Jharkhand Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2014 will be held on 19th July and 20th July, 2014. The full examination programme for the Main (Written) Examination is available at the official website of Jharkhand Public Service Commission.

For further details and the full exam schedule, visit the link below-
http://www.jpsc.gov.in/data/Civil_judge_jd_mains_20_06_2014.pdf 

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Admit Card | Madhya Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (MPHJS) Pre Exam 2014

High Court of Madhya Pradesh has uploaded the Admit Cards of the eligible candidates for the Preliminary Examination of Madhya Pradesh Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014.

The Preliminary Examination of Madhya Pradesh Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014 is going to be held on 6th July, 2014. Eligible Candidates may download their Admit Cards from the official website of MPONLINE.

For downloading the Admit Card for M.P.Higher Judicial Service (Entry Level) Direct Recruitment Prelims. Exam-2014, visit the link below-
https://www.digialm.com/EForms/loginAction.do?subAction=ViewLoginPage&orgId=772&formId=735 

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Interview Schedule | Assam Judicial Service Grade- III Exam

The Gauhati High Court has announced the Schedule for the Interview/ Viva-voce for the eligible candidates for Assam Judicial Service Grade- III Exam.

The Interview/ Viva-voce for the Assam Judicial Service Grade- III Exam will be held on 20th July 2014 at the Gauhati High Court, Guwahati.

For further details and the full schedule of Interview, visit the link below-
http://ghconline.nic.in/Recruitment/Notification-19-06-2014.pdf 

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Result | Assam Judicial Service Grade- III Main (Written) Exam 2014

The Gauhati High Court has declared the result of the Main (Written) Examination of Assam Judicial Service Grade-III.

The Main (Written) Examination were held on 08.02.2014, 09.02.2014 and 10.02.2014 for direct recruitment to Grade- III of Assam Judicial Service. The list of candidates who have qualified for the Interview/ Viva-voce, is available at the official website of the Gauhati High Court.

For further details and the list of qualified candidates, visit the link below-
http://ghconline.nic.in/Recruitment/Notification-19-06-2014.pdf 

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Revised Exam Programme for Uttarakhand Civil Judge (Junior Division) Main Written Exam 2013

Uttarakhand Public Service Commission has revised the Exam Programme for the Main Written Examination of Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2013.

Earlier the Main Written Examination of Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) 2013 were scheduled to be held from 21st June, 2014 to 26th June, 2014. Now, the Main Written Examination will be held from 27th June to 29th June, 2014 (Computer) and 31st July to 2nd Aug, 2014 (Written).

For further details and full revised programme for the Main Written Examination, visit the link below- 

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Programme of West Bengal Judicial Service Final Written Exam 2014

Public Service Commission, West Bengal has announced the Programme of Final Written Examination of West Bengal Judicial Service, 2014.

The Final Written Examination of West Bengal Judicial Service, 2014 will be held from 19th July 2014 to 28th July 2014. Detailed Programme of Final Written Examination of West Bengal Judicial Service, 2014, is available at the official website of the Public Service Commission, West Bengal.

For further details and the full programme of the final written exam of WBJS 2014, visit the link below- 

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Result | West Bemgal Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam 2014

West Bengal Public Service Commission has declared the result of the Preliminary Written Examination of West Bengal Judicial Service, 2014.

Total 625 candidates qualified for the Final Written Examination of WBJS 2014. List of candidates qualified for the Final Written Examination of West Bengal Judicial Service, 2014, is available at the official website of West Bengal Public Service Commission.

For further details and the List of candidates qualified for the Final Written Examination, visit the link below-
http://www.pscwb.org.in/pdf/RESULT-JUDICIAL-2014-PRELI_17-06-14.pdf 

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Friday, June 20, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 91-100

91. Against an arder of release passed by the District Magistrate under section 16 of U.R Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972-
(A) an appeal is maintainable before the District Judge
(B) an appeal is maintainable before the Commissioner
(C) the revision is maintainable before the District Judge
(D) the revision is maintainable before the High Court.

Ans. (C)

92.. Under Seen 24 of the U.P. Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 a tenant has option of re-entry-
(A ) when the tenant has been evicted on a suit filed by landlord for eviction on any of the grounds as mentioned under sub section (4) of Section 20 of the Act
(B) when the tenant vacates the premises on a promise made by landlord to permit re-entry after reconstruction of the building
(C) when the landlord after release under section 21(1) (b) of the Act demolishes the building and constructs new building
(D) when the tenant vacates the premises temporarily.

Ans. (C)

93. An elected member of the municipal board can be removed by-
(A) a resolution passed by municipal board by simple majority
(B) a resolution passed by municipal board by 2/3rd majority
(C) an order passed by the State Government
(D) an order passed by the President of the Municipal Board.

Ans. (C)

94. The Gram Sabha under the U.R Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 means-
(A) a body consisting of all adult males residing in Gram Sabha
(B) a body consisting of all adult males and females residing in Gram Sabha
(C) a body consisting of all the persons registered in the electoral rolls
(D) a body consisting of all inhabitants residing in Gram Sabha.

Ans. (C)

95. The Development Authority under the U.R Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 can make any amendment in the zonal development plan as it thinks fit-
(A) which amendments in its opinion effect important alterations in the character of the plan
(B) which amendments in its opinion relate to the extent of the land uses
(C) which amendments in its opinion do not relate to the standards or population density
(D) which amendments in its opinion relate to the standards or population density.

Ans. (C)

96. What is the maximum area which can be allotted to an agricultural labourer of the of the village for abadi site under the U.P.Z.A. & L.R. Rules, 1952?
(A) 100 square meters
(B) 250 square meters
(C) 50 square meters
(D) No maximum limit prescribed.

Ans. (B)

97. When a female bhumidhar or asami other than a bhumidhar or asami mentioned in Sections 171&172 of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act dies, her interest in the holding shall devolve on which of her following heirs, first to the exclusion of others-
(A) Sister’s son
(B) Sister
(C) Brother
(D) Brother’s son.

Ans. (C)

98. Where the office of Pradhan is vacant by resignation of previous incumbent, which of the following procedures be adopted for discharging the duties of Pradhan?
(A) The Gram Sabha shall pass a resolution by 2/3rd majority electing any other person to discharge the duties of Pradhan
(B) The Gram Panchayat shall pass a resolution electing any member of Gram Panchayat to act as Pradhan
(C) The Up-Pradhan shall discharge duties of Pradhan till fresh election is held for the office of Pradhan
(D) The prescribed authority shall nominate a member of the Gram Panchayat to discharge the duties of Pradhan.

Ans. (D)

99. A bhumidhar or asami belonging to Scheduled Tribes can transfer any land by way of lease to a person belonging to which of the following categories?
(A) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes
(B) A person not belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes with prior permission of Assistant Collector First Class
(C) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes with the permission of Assistant Collector.
(D) A person belonging to Scheduled Tribes.

Ans. (D)

100. By-laws of a Municipal Board can be framed in which of following manners? .
(A) The State Government shall frame by-laws for the Municipal Board.
(B) The by-laws of the Municipal Board can be framed by passing a resolution by the Municipal Board.
(C) The by-laws can be framed by Municipality only by a special resolution after previous publication.
(D) The by-law can be framed by the President of the Municipal Board

Ans. (C)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Thursday, June 19, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 81-90
 

81. The accused inflicted injuries on non-vital parts of the deceased which were not found to be sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death but it was proved that he inflicted the injuries with a nowledge that with these injuries the victim was likely to die. The case would be punishable under section-
(A) 302 I.P.C.
(B) 303 I.P.C.
(C) 304 Part I I.P.C.
(D) 304 Part II I.P.C.

Ans. (D)

82. The termination of pregnancy will attract penal provisions of Section 312 I.P.C. if it is done-
(A) to prevent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman
(B) in view of the substantial risk that if the child is born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
(C) as the pregnancy is alleged by pregnant woman to have been caused by rape
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (D)

83. Which kind of hurt is not grievous?
(A) Any hurt which endangers life.
(B) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of 15 days in severe bodily pain.
(C) Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.
(D) Privation of any member or joint.

Ans. (B)
84. ‘A’ finds a ring belonging to ‘Z’ on a table in the house which ‘Y’ occupies . A dishonestly removes the ring. A has committed which of the following offence?
(A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Criminal misappropriation of property
(C) Theft
(D) Dishonestly receiving stolen property.

Ans. (C)

85. Theory of retribution-
(A) is a theory in which exemplary punishment shall be given to criminal
(B) is a theory that a criminal should be punished in proportion to his offence
(C) is a theory in which the criminal must be reformed
(D) is a theory in which criminal should be sent to open jail.

Ans. (B)

86. ‘A’ is a good swimmer looks ‘B’ drowning but does not try to save ‘A’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of-
(A) murder
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) causing death due to negligent act.
(D) not committed any offence.

Ans. (D)
87. In which of the following sections of U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1955, a revenue court can grant injunction?
(A) Section 229-A
(B) Section 229-B
(C) Section 229-C
(D) Section 229-D.

Ans. (D)

88. Re-possession of the leased land after eviction is punishable under which Section of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act?
(A) 115-C
(B) 122-F
(C) 198-A
(D) 209.

Ans. (C)

89. Section 11A of the UP. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 bars-
(A) a fresh suit before civil Court
(B) a fresh suit before revenue court
(C) objection pertaining to title
(D) objection pertaining to allotment of chaks.

Ans. (C)
 

90. Section 52-A of the U.R Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 empowers the-
(A) Director of Consolidation to make provisions for chak roads or chak guls
(B) Deputy Director of Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guIs
(C) Collector to provide for chak roads or chak guls
(D) Settlement Officer Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guls.

Ans. (C)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Tuesday, June 17, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 71-80

71. A joint statement of several witnesses recorded during investigation-
(A) will render these persons as incompetent witnesses
(B) will render their statement as inadmissible
(C) will neither render these persons as incompetent witnesses nor their evidence as inadmissible
(D) will render these persons as incompetent witnesses as well as their evidence as inadmissible.

Ans. (C)
72. For an offence punishable with three years imprisonment the limitation prescribed under Cr.P.C. is-
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 3 years
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)

73. An order passed under Section 125 of Cr.RC. can be challenged by the unsuccessful party by filing a revision-
(A) only before Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) only before Sessions Judge
(C) only before High Court
(D) Either before the Sessions Judge or High Court.

Ans. (D)

74. In case of merger of the complaint with the police report, the procedure to be followed for the trial-
(A) shall be of the complaint case
(B) shall be of the case instituted on the police report
(C) shall be of both as per convenience during the trial
(D) shall be the one as directed by the Magistrate.

Ans. (B)
75. Power under Section 319 of Cr.RC. can be exercised-
(A) by the Magistrate and the Court of Sessions both only after recording of evidence during the inquiry or trial
(B) by the Magistrate before recording of evidence but by the Court of Sessions only after recording of evidence
(C) by The Magistrate and the Court of Sessions both even before recording of evidence
(D) . by the Magistrate only after recording evidence but by the Court of Sessions before recording of evidence.

Ans. (A)

76. ‘A’ and ‘B’ were about to travel from Allahabad to Delhi by the same train. ‘B’ had two tickets from Allahabad to Aligarh and ‘A’ had a ticket from Allahabad to Delhi ‘A’ voluntarily handed over his ticket to ‘B’ in order to check that it was the right one; ‘B’ under the pretence of returning ‘A’s ticket substituted it by one of his own and kept ‘A’s ticket. What offence did ‘B’ commit?
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Criminal misappropriation
(D) Cheating.

Ans. (C)

77. Section 73 of the I.RC. provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be-
(A) one year
(B) two years
(C) three months
(D) six months.

Ans. (C)

78. If the offence is punishable with fine only, the imprisonment which the court imposes in default of payment of the fine shall be-
(A) only simple
(B) only rigorous
(C) either simple or rigorous
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

79. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is-
(A) under 7 years of age
(B) under 14 years of age
(C) under 14 years of age
(D) under 16 years of age

Ans. (A)

80. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(A) For an unlawful assembly the number of persons must be five or more.
(B) Mere presence of a person at the scene of offence does not make him a member of an unlawful assembly.
(C) An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled may subsequently become an unlawful assembly.
(D) When the accused persons are charged for committing mischief and for rioting separately, the acquittal from charge of mischief would entail automatically acquittal from charge of rioting.

Ans. (D)


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Sunday, June 15, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 61-70

61. A Magistrate convicts an accused of theft for one year imprisonment and one thousand fine. Maximum punishment for which accused can be sentenced to imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall be-
(A) 1 year
(B) 9 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months

Ans. (B)
62. A Magistrate may not remand the accused to police custody for-
(A) more than 24 hours
(B) more than 7 days
(C) more than 14 days
(D) more than 15 days

Ans. (D)

63. Presumption under the law of evidence are-
(A) presumption of facts
(B) presumptions of law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only (B) and not (A).

Ans. (C)

64. A leading question can be asked in-
(A) examination-in-chief
(B) cross-examination
(C) re-examination
(D) All of the above.

Ans. (B)

65. Under Section 145 of the Evidence Act a witness may be cross examined as to previous statement in writing
(A) after proving the same and showing the same to the witness
(B) without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
(C) after proving the same and reading the same to the witness
(D) without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness.

Ans. (D)

66. A witness summoned to produce a document can refuse to bring it before the court on the ground that-
(A) the record in question is unpublished record
(B) the record in question relates to an affair of State
(C) the record is admissible
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (D)

67. The opinion of expert may be obtained under Section 40 of the Evidence Act in relation to-
(A) Science, Art, Law, Finger impression and handwriting/signature
(B) Science including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger impression and handwriting
(C) Science, including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger impression, handwriting and signatures
(D) Science, Art, Foreign law, Finger impression and handwriting/signature. —

Ans. (D)

68. In criminal cases previous bad character of accused is-
(A) relevant
(B) always irrelevant
(C) relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good character
(D) relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good character and when bad character is itself in issue.

Ans. (D)

69. Under Section 372 of Cr.RC. a victim-
(A) can file an appeal against the order of acquittal
(B) can file an appeal only after obtaining leave from the appellate court
(C) has no right to file an appeal
(D) should approach the District Magistrate and Public Prosecutor for filing an appeal.

Ans. (A)

70. A non confessional statement recorded under Section 164 of Cr.RC..
(A) is a substantive piece of evidence
(B) is not a substantive piece of evidence
(C) may or may not be substantive evidence depending upon the facts and cicumstances
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (B)


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Schedule | Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Written Exam 2014

Saturday, June 14, 2014

High Court of Kerala has announced the Schedule of the Written Examination of Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014.

The Written Examination of Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014 will be held on 12th & 13th July 2014. Full Schedule is as follows:

PAPER - I 12-07-2014 (10 A.M. TO 1 P.M)
PAPER - II 13-07-2014 (10 A.M. TO 1 P.M)

CENTRE OF EXAMINATION: VIDYANIKETAN, PROVIDENCE ROAD, ERNAKULAM

For further details, visit the link below-
http://hckrecruitment.nic.in/pdf/DJ_2014_question_paper_pattern.pdf 

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List of Defective Applications | Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Written Exam 2014

High Court of Kerala has published the list of ineligible candidates for the written examination of Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014.

The list of ineligible candidates (List of Defective Applications) for the written examination of Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014 is available at the official website of the High Court of Kerala.

For further details and the list of ineligible candidates, visit the link below- 

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List of Eligible Candidates | Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Written Exam 2014

High Court of Kerala has published the list of eligible candidates for the written examination of Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014.

The list of eligible candidates for the written examination of Kerala State Higher Judicial Service Exam 2014 is available at the official website of the High Court of Kerala.

For further details and the list of eligible candidates, visit the link below-
http://hckrecruitment.nic.in/pdf/KSHJSE2014.pdf 

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Schedule | Interview | Legal Assistant | Gujarat High Court

High Court of Gujarat has announced the Time Schedule for the Oral Interview (Viva-voce) for the recruitment of Legal Assistants in Gujarat High Court.

Oral Interview (Viva-voce) for the recruitment of Legal Assistants in Gujarat High Court will be conducted from 20.06.2014 to 21.06.2014. Seat Number wise Time Schedule for qualified candidates is available at the official website of the High Court of Gujarat.

For further details and Full Schedule for Viva-voce, visit the link below-
http://gujarathighcourt.nic.in/Oral_Schedule_23770.pdf 

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Result | Legal Assistant Prem. Exam | Gujarat High Court

High Court of Gujarat has declared the List of Candidates who are qualified for Viva-voce Test (Oral Interview) after the Preliminary Examination for recruitment to the post of Legal Assistant in Gujarat High Court.

The Preliminary Examination for recruitment to the post of Legal Assistant in Gujarat High Court were held on 11.05.2014. List of successful candidates for Viva-voce is available at the official website of the High Court of Gujarat.

For further details and the select list for Viva-voce, visit the link below-

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Model Answer Keys | Delhi Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination - 2014

Friday, June 13, 2014

High Court of Delhi has published the Model Answer Keys of question paper booklets of Delhi Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination - 2014.

Delhi Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination - 2014 were held on 01.06.2014. The Model Answer Keys of question paper booklets A, C, E & G are available at the official website of the High Court of Delhi.

For further details and the model answer keys, visit the link below- 

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Answer Key | Maharashtra Civil Judge (Junior Division) and Judicial Magistrate (First Class) Preliminary Exam 2014

Maharashtra Public Service Commission has published the answer keys of the Preliminary Examination of Maharashtra Civil Judge (Junior Division) and Judicial Magistrate (First Class) Exam 2014.

The Preliminary Examination of Maharashtra Civil Judge (Junior Division) and Judicial Magistrate (First Class) Exam 2014 were held on 7th June, 2014. The Answer Keys for the Series A, B, C and D are available at the official website of Maharashtra Public Service Commission.

For further details and the answer keys of preliminary examination, visit the link below-
http://www.mpsc.gov.in/answerkey.jsp?head=1&status=1 

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 51-60

51. A Garnishee order is an order-
(A) prohibiting the judgment debtor’s debtor from making any payment to the judgment debtor
(B) directing the decree holder to take the payment from the judgment debtor’s debtor
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)

52. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit-
(A) for partition
(B) of partnership
(C) for possession and mesne profits
(D) All the above.

Ans. (D)

53. Order XXVI, Rule 4A C.P.C., empowers the court to issue commission in a suit for examination of a person-
(A) resident within the local limits of its jurisdiction ‘
(B) resident beyond the local limits of its jurisdiction
(C) who is about to leave the local limits of its jurisdiction
(D) Both (A) and (B).

Ans. (A)

54. A suit for compensation for wrong done to the person or to moveable property, where the wrong was done within the local jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within the local limits of another court
(A) can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the wrong has been committed
(B) can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the defendant resides
(C) Either (A) or (B) at the option of the plaintiff
(D) can be instituted anywhere in India.

Ans. (C)

55. Compounding of an offence will result in-
(A) acquittal
(B) discharge
(C) compromise
(D) conviction.

Ans. (A)

56. In a summary trial maximum punishment of imprisonment can be-
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years.

Ans. (D)

57. Period of appearance for proclamation issued under Section 82 of Cr.P.C. is not less than-
(A) 15 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days.

Ans. (B)

58. A revision can be filed against an order passed by Sub Divisional Magistrate under Section 145(6) of Cr.P.C. in the court of-
(A) District Magistrate
(B) ADM (Administration)
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) Sessions Judge.

Ans. (D)

59. An offence of theft can be tried by a court under whose jurisdiction-
(A) the theft has been committed
(B) the stolen property is found in possession of thief
(C) the stolen property is kept by the accused knowing it to be stolen
(D) Any of the above.

Ans. (D)

60. If an offence is punishable with fine only then the limitation for taking cognizance will be-
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years.

Ans. (A)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Wednesday, June 11, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 41-50
 

41. "In pari delicto” means-
(A) where parents are at fault
(B) in case of equal fault or guilt
(C) a person with guilty mind
(D) a delinquent criminal

Ans. (B)

42. Which of the following mode of transfer of property is not covered by Transfer of Property Act, 1882-
(A) Sale
(B) Mortgage
(C) Testamentary disposition
(D) Exchange.

Ans. (C)

43. According to Section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the provisions of some sections shall not apply in the case of a transfer of property for the benefit of the public in the advancement of religion, knowledge, commerce, health safety or any other object beneficial to mankind. These sections are-
(A) 13,14,15&16
(B) 14,16&17
(C) 14,16,17 &18
(D) 14,15 & 20.

Ans. (B)

44. The leading case of Hindu husband’s entering second marriage on conversion to islam is-
(A) Mohini Jam’s case, 1992(3) SCC 666
(B) Daniel Latifi’s case, 2001(7) SCC 740
(C) Saila Mudgal’s case, 1995(3) SCC 635
(D) Shah Bano’s case, 1985(2) SCC 556.

Ans. (C)

45. For a valid Muslim marriage-
(A) offer and acceptance must be at the same time
(B) offer and acceptance must be at the same place
(C) offer and acceptance must be at the same time and same place
(D) offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different places.

Ans. (C)

46. A suit for recovery of possession of an immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed against
(A) a private individual only
(B) a government
(C) both a private individual and a government
(D) neither (A) nor (B).

Ans. (A)

47. The trustee has no right to be reimbursed for-
(A) the expenses made by him for improvement of the property
(B) the expenses reasonably necessary to the due administration of the trust
(C) the preservation of the trust property
(D) the protection of rights of beneficiaries.

Ans. (A)

48. 'Professional Communication' between Advocate and his client-
(A) is not admissible in evidence
(B) is a privilege communication only until the contract continues
(C) is admissible in evidence with consent of the client
(D) is not admissible until it is legal.

Ans. (C)

49. Remedies available against an ex-parte decree include-
(A) appeal
(B) review
(C) application for setting aside the decree
(D) All the above.

Ans. (D)
50. Who amongst the following is not a ‘public officer’ within the meaning of section 2(17) of CPC?
(A) A Judge
(B) A person in service under the pay of Government
(C) Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Monday, June 9, 2014


Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 31-40

31. Which of the following is not an essential requisite for creating a partnership as per Section 4 of the Partnership Act?
(A) An agreement to carry on a business
(B) Sharing of profits
(C) Sharing of losses
(D) Business to be carried by all or any of them acting for all.

Ans. (C)

32. In case of adoption of a son by a Hindu male, the son must be-
(A) less than twenty one years of age
(B) less than eighteen years of age
(C) less than fifteen years of age
(D) less than nine years of age.

Ans. (C)

33. Adoption is not recognized under the-
(A) Muhammadan law
(B) Parsi law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).

Ans. (C)

34. Parties by their consent/ agreement-
(A) can confer jurisdiction on a court where there is none in law
(B) can oust the jurisdiction of a court when there is one in law
(C) can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are two courts having simultaneous jurisdiction in law
(D) All the above.

Ans. (C)

35. A pleader has a duty to inform the court about the death of parties under-
(A) Order 22 Rule 1 C.P.C.
(B) Order 22 Rule 4 C.RC.
(C) Order 22 Rule 8 C.P.C.
(D) Order 22 Rule 1OA C.P.C.

Ans. (D)

36. Which is correct?
(A) Proposal+acceptance = promise
(B) Promise+ consideration = agreement
(C) agreement+enforceability = contract
(D) All the above.

Ans. (D)

37. A contract which is valid initially however, ceases to be enforceable subsequently, the contract-
(A) remains valid
(B) becomes voidable when it ceases to be enforceable
(C) becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
(D) becomes void since inception.

Ans. (C)

38. ‘A’ transfers property to ‘B’ for life and after his death to ‘C, and ‘D’, equally to be divided between them or to the survivors of them. ‘C’ dies during the life time of ‘B’. ‘D’ survives ‘B’. At B’s death the property-
(A) shall pass to D
(B) shall pass to D and survivors of C
(C) the transfer becomes void at the death of C during B’s lifetime
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (A)

39. A settlement made to defeat and defraud creditors is voidable under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Section 52
(B) Section 53
(C) Section 54
(D) Section 55.

Ans. (B)

40. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act declares as void agreement-
(A) in restraint of marriage
(B) in restraint of legal proceedings
(C) in restraint of trade
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (B)


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Revised Result | CLAT- 2014 | Common Law Admission Test- 2014

Sunday, June 8, 2014

Organizing University: Gujarat National Law University, for CLAT- 2014 has declared the revised result of Common Law Admission Test- 2014.

The revised result of CLAT- 2014 is available at the official website of CLAT (Common Law Admission Test). You can check your result of CLAT 2014 by logging into account through your CLAT 2014 login id and entering your password.

For further details and the revised result of CLAT 2014, visit the official website of CLAT at the link below-
http://www.clat.ac.in/ 

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Saturday, June 7, 2014


Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 21-30

21. The Supreme Court through which of the following judicial pronouncements has made all marriages compulsorily registrable?
(A) Zahira Sheikh Vs. State of Gujarat (2004) 4 SCC 158
(B) Vishaka Vs. State of Rajasthan (1997) 6 SCC 241
(C) Mohammad Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum (1985) 2 SCC 556
(D) Smt. Seema Vs. Ashwani Kumar (2006) 2 SCC 578

Ans. (D)

22. Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution of India may be granted by Supreme Court-
(A) only against the orders and judgments of the High courts
(B) from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order under any cause or matter passed or made by any court or Tribunal in territory of India
(C) against any appel1ate order or judgment passed by the Courts or Tribunal in India
(D) against the order or judgment of the High Court passed only in Public Interest Litigation.

Ans. (B)

23. Which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been dealt with in Article 143 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Appellate
(B) Writ
(C) Original
(D) None of the above

Ans. (D)

24. The prohibition regarding discussion in Parliament with regard to conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of the High Court in discharge of his duties is contained in Article-
(A) 121
(B) 211
(C) 124
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (A)

25. The freedom of Press in India is-
(A) available to the people under the laws of the Parliament
(B) specifically provided in the Constitution of India
(C) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(D) available to the people under executive orders.

Ans. (C)

26. The District Judge can be given power to issue prerogative writs by-
(A) order of Supreme Court under Article 141 of the Constitution of India
(B) Executive Orders issued by the Governor in consultation with the High Court under Article 162 of the Constitution of India.
(C) the Parliament by law under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
(D) the High Court by a decision of Full Court.

Ans. (C)

27. Which of the following is not included in Electoral college for electing president?
(A) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Elected Members of the Legislative Assembly of the State
(C) Elected Members of the Legislative Council
(D) Elected members of the Lok Sabha.

Ans. (C)

28. 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains-
(A) powers, authorities and resppnsibilities of the municipalities endowed to it by State Legislature
(B) powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayat endowed to it by Parliament
(C) powers, authorities and responsibilities which any local Government can exercise.
(D) powers, authorities and responsibilities endowed to Panchayat by State Legislature.

Ans. (D)

29. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy privilege of exemption from arrest or detention in prison-
(A) only under Civil process and during the continuance of a joint sit ing/ meeting/ conference or joint committee of Houses of Parliament or Houses of State Legislature as the case may be and during 40 days before and after such sitting/ meeting/ comference
(B) under Civil as well as Criminal process and as all times save with the permission of the Speaker or the Chairperson as the case may be.
(C) under Civil as well as Criminal process but only when the house is in session
(D) do not enjoy any such exemption.

Ans. (C)

30. How many members can be nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?
(A) 1/6th
(B) 1/12th
(C) 1/3rd
(D) 1/9th

Ans. (A)


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Exam Program | Uttarakhand Civil Judge (Junior Division) Main Exam- 2013

Friday, June 6, 2014

Uttarakhand Public Service Commission has announced the Exam Program for the Main Examination of Uttarakhand Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2013.

The Main Examination of Uttarakhand Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2013 will be held from 21st June to 26th June, 2014. Exam Schedule is as follows:

21.06.2014: 09.30 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.: Present Day
21.06.2014: 02.00 p.m. - 05.00 p.m.: Language
22.06.2014: 09.30 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.: Law-I (Substantive Law)
22.06.2014: 02.00 p.m. - 05.00 p.m.: Law-II (Evidence & Procedure)
23.06.2014: 09.30 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.: Law-III (Revenue & Criminal)
24.06.2014: 09.00 a.m. - 10.00 a.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-I)
24.06.2014: 12.00 p.m. - 01.00 p.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-II)
24.06.2014: 03.00 p.m. - 04.00 p.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-III)
25.06.2014: 09.00 a.m. - 10.00 a.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-I)
25.06.2014: 12.00 p.m. - 01.00 p.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-II)
25.06.2014: 03.00 p.m. - 04.00 p.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-III)
26.06.2014: 09.00 a.m. - 10.00 a.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-I)
26.06.2014: 12.00 p.m. - 01.00 p.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-II)
26.06.2014: 03.00 p.m. - 04.00 p.m.: Basic Knowledge of Computer (Batch-III)

For further details and full schedule of Main Exam, visit the link below-
http://ukpsc.gov.in/files/CJ_JD_2014_Main_Exam_programe.pdf 

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Recruitment of SJM/ SMM in Allahabad High Court 2014 | Special Judicial Magistrate/ Special Metropolitan Magistrate

Thursday, June 5, 2014

Name of Post: Special Judicial Magistrate/ Special Metropolitan Magistrate
No. of Posts: Total- 03
[Muzaffarnagar-1, Ghazipur-1, Rampur-1]

Term of Office: Four years from the date of assumption of his charge or attaining the age of 70 years whichever is earlier
Eligibility: A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Special Judicial Magistrate unless he-
(a) holds or has held any post under the Government; and
(b) possesses the degree of law or otherwise is well experienced in relation to legal affairs to the satisfaction of the High Court.

How to Apply: All the applicants may submit their applications to the District Judge of the district concerned, who shall after making proper scrutiny shall forward the same to the Hon'ble Court along with his remarks without any delay for consideration of the Hon'ble Court.

For more details and format of Application Form, visit the official website of Allahabad High Court or Click Here-
http://www.allahabadhighcourt.in/event/SJM_vacancy_29_05_2014.pdf 

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 11-20

11. Recently which country has severed all its ties with United Nations Human Rights Council?
(A) Syria
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Israel
(D) Russia

Ans. (C)

12. Entomology is a science related to-
(A) Fishes
(B) Insects
(C) Reptiles
(D) Mammals

Ans. (B)

13. Thesaurus is associated with-
(A) study of religion
(B)study of God
(C) study of earth
(D) study of words

Ans. (D)

14. Tejaswani Sawant is the First Indian Woman to be crowned world champion in-
(A) Boxing
(B) Shooting
(C) Athletics
(D) Wrestling

Ans. (B)

15. During sleep the blood pressure of a man-
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) fluctuates
(D) remains constant

Ans. (B)

16. Tides in the ocean occur due to-
(A) attraction of the moon
(B) attraction of the sun
(C) both (A) & (B)
(D) spherical shape of the earth

Ans. (C)

17. The Nilekani panel set up in February 2011 recently submitted its report on-
(A) inflation control
(B) Lokpal Institution
(C) Public Distribution Ststem
(D) Price-mechanism

Ans. (C)

18. Red blood cells are formed in which part of our body?
(A) Liver
(B) Heart
(C) Bone marrow
(D) Kidney

Ans. (C)

19. What is the name of the first indigenously developed super computer of India?
(A) Tejas
(B) Anupam
(C) Aryabhatt
(D) Param

Ans. (D)

20. Which one of the following is correct Hindi translation of word 'revoke'?
(A) प्रत्याहरण
(B) प्रतिसंहरण
(C) प्रत्यावर्तन
(D) अपवर्तन

Ans. (B)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Monday, June 2, 2014


Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 01-10

1. "El Nino" associated with the formation of Southwest Monsoon of India is-
(A) Abnormally warm ocean current
(B) Periodic Warm Airmass
(C) Periodic Warm Wind
(D) Periodic Low Pressure Cente

Ans. (A)

2. In Hindustani classical music 'Rag Bhairvi' is sung during-
(A) early morning
(B) late evening
(C) midnight
(D) afternoon

Ans. (A)

3. Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of Benches?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bombay
(D) Guahati

Ans. (D)

4. Who was the first Chief Justice of Independent India?
(A) Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar
(B) Justice H.R. Khanna
(C) Justice K. Subba Rao
(D) Justice H.J. Kania

Ans. (D)

5. Who is associated with drafting of Indian Penal Code?
(A) Lord Macaulay
(B) Mullah
(C) Sir H.S. Mayne
(D) Frederick Pollock

Ans. (A)

6. Which one of the following countries has the largest Muslim population?
(A) Bangla Desh
(B) Pakistan
(C) India
(D) Indonesia

Ans. (D)

7. Potassium Permanganate is used for purifying drinking water because-
(A) it is sterilizing agent
(B) it dissolves the impurities of water
(C) it is a reducing agent
(D) it is an oxidizing agent

Ans. (D)

8. Which one of the following is the newest substance being used in the production of computer chip?
(A) Silicon
(B) Carbon
(C) Gallium Silicate
(D) Gallium Arsenide

Ans. (A)

9. 'Before Memory Fades' : an Autobiography is written by-
(A) Nani Palkhivala
(B) Fali S. Nariman
(C) Archna Upadhyay
(D) Vikram Seth

Ans. (B)

10. To qualify as a National Political Party, a political party has to fulfill which of the following conditions?
(A) it has to win assembly seats at least in three States
(B) it has to receive 4% of the total votes polled in 2 or more States
(C) it has to receive 6 % of the total votes share in four or more States
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)


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