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Saturday, August 09, 2014

Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 91-100

91. Conditions and warranties in a contract may be
(A) Express
(B) Implied
(C) Express or implied
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

92. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘right to sleep’ is a fundamental right?
(A) Naaz Foundation Case
(B) In Re Ramlila Maiden Case
(C) Anna Hazare Case
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

93. Which of the fundamental rights was amended by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 which got the President’s assent on 12th January, 2012?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Life
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

94. Transplantation of Human Organ (Amendment) Act, 2011 increased the publisher for illegal human organ and tissue transplantation to.
(A) 7 years
(B) 10 years
(C) Life Imprisonment
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

95. The Supreme Court has recently rule that OBC Students will qualify for admissions under the reserved category if they have……………percent less marks than the eligibility level fixed for the general category students.
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 15

Ans. (B)

96. The supreme court has held that prostitutes are entitled to a life of dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. The statement is.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly Correct
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

97. In case of customary rights, easements are……………..rights annexed to the place in general.
(A) Private
(B) Public
(C) Customary
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

98. The word ‘easement’ is defined in section………….of the Indian Easements Act, 1882
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 4
(D) Section 5

Ans. (C)

99. Which of the following sections of the Indian Easements Act, defines the term ‘customary easement’?
(A) Section 15
(B) Section 18
(C) Section 22
(D) Section 26

Ans. (B)

100. Expert opinion is relevant under section………………of the Indian Evidence Act.
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 43
(C) Section 44
(D) Section 45

Ans. (D)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 81-90

81. Which of the following Muslim Laws applies in India?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
(B) Muslim Law of Evidence
(C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986

Ans. (D)

82. Which of the following animals has the power of regeneration?
(A) Frog
(B) Lizard
(C) Tortoise
(D) Snake

Ans. (B)

83. Which section of Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 mandates that after declaration of any area as development area under section 3 of the Act no development of land shall be undertaken or carried out unless permission for such development has been obtained in writing from the Vice Chairman.
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 41
(D) Section 15

Ans. (B)

84. What maximum penalty can be imposed in a non-continuing offence if any development has been made after declaration of the area as development area under section 3 of the Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 without permission of Vice Chairman of the Authority?
(A) Rs. Thirty Thousand
(B) Rs. One Lac
(C) Rs. Fifty Thousand
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

85. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the enforcement of Uniform Civil Code.
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 48
(D) 44

Ans. (D)

86. Which Article of the Constitution provide benefit to minority institutions.
(A) 19
(B) 16
(C) 15
(D) 30

Ans. (D)

87. Which of the following cases is known as the ‘Nirbhaya Case’?
(A) Mumbai rape case
(B) Delhi gang rape
(C) Mathura rape case
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

88. According to the new companies act, 2013, what is the minimum number of person/s required to from a Private Limited Company ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Ans. (A)

89. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 which came into force in November, 2012 ‘child’ means a boy or girl below the age of.
(A) 15 years
(B) 16 years
(C) 17 years
(D) 18 years

Ans. (D)

90. In which of the following recent cases did the constitution bench of the Supreme Court hold that Indian Courts have no jurisdiction over arbitral awards seated outside of India?
(A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading
(B) Bharat Aluminium Co. V Kaiser Aluminium Technical Service
(C) Standard Chartered Bank V. HSBC
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 71-80

71. ‘A’ offers ‘B’ lavish entertainment if ‘B’ paints his portrait.
(A) Offer is valid since the work is specified
(B) Offer is valid since the terms and identifiable
(C) Offer is not valid since the terms and vague
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

72. The definition of movable property under section 22 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 excludes………………………
(A) Land
(B) Things attached to the earth
(C) Things permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth
(D) All of the above

Ans. (D)

73. Object of serving Iddat period if……………
(A) To ascertain whether the woman is pregnant or not.
(B) To ascertain the paternity of the child
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

74. Minimum period for Muta Marriage is
(A) One month
(B) One year
(C) Three month
(D) No minimum period

Ans. (D)

75. Adoption is unknown to
(A) Hindu Law
(B) Muslim Law
(C) Christian Law
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

76. The element of malice
(A) Is essential in all torts
(B) Is not essential is any tort
(C) Is essential in the torts of defamation and malicious prosecution
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

77. If two suits between same parties involve same subject matter and same question then…………………..suit/s should be stayed.
(A) Former
(B) Subsequent
(C) Both
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

78. Under the provisions of Transfer of Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested interest.
(A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
(C) 12 days after his birth
(D) 18 days after his birth

Ans. (A)

79. In which of the following conditions the lease can be terminated
(A) Efflux of time
(B) On termination of lessor’s interest or power
(C) On merger
(D) All of the above

Ans. (D)

80. Who can be a guardian in minor’s marriage in Sunni Law?
(A) Mother in the presence of father
(B) Grand-mother in the presence of father
(C) Maternal uncle in the presence of father
(D) Father Question Number: 81-90

Ans. (D)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 61-70

61. Under the doctrine of vicarious liability which one among the following is correct?
(A) Principal is liable for the wrongful act of his agent.
(B) Master is liable for the torts of his servant.
(C) Partner are liable for each other’s wrongful act
(D) All of the above are correct.

Ans. (D)

62. Transfer of property for the benefit of an unborn person can be made by
(A) Creation of a prior interest in favour of a living person for any period
(B) Vesting the right directly to the unborn.
(C) Creation of a prior interest in favour of a living person till the existence of unborn person.
(D) Either to the unborn or to a living person.

Ans. (C)

63. Which section of Uttar Pradesh Municipalities Act, 1916 empowers the State Government to dissolve the municipality.
(A) Section 48
(B) Section 31 (A)
(C) Section 30
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

64. Which of the following is/are decree/s?
(A) Order of abatement of a suit
(B) Dismissal of appeal as time barred.
(C) Dismissal of suit for want of evidence.
(D) All of the above

Ans. (D)

65. Judge is defined as the presiding officer of a civil court under…………..of the code of civil procedure, 1908.
(A) Section 2 (8)
(B) Section 2 (4)
(C) Section 2 (5)
(D) Section 2 (2)

Ans. (A)

66. Principle of res judicata applies to……………
(A) Suits only
(B) Execution proceedings only
(C) Arbitration proceedings only
(D) Suits as well as execution proceedings

Ans. (D)

67. Which of the following has been specifically excluded from the definition of complaint under section 2 (d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Protest petition
(B) Joint complaint
(C) Police report
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

68. A Magistrate can issue summons to an accused the appear before a police officer. The statement is
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly correct
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

69. On the death of a sole proprietor, his heirs automatically become the partners of old firm. The statement is
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

70. Which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act bestows every partner with the authority of an agent?
(A) Section 17
(B) Section 18
(C) Section 19
(D) Section 20

Ans. (B)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 51-60

51. Section 12 (1) (a) of the Hindu Marriage Act is related to
(A) Impotency
(B) Mental disorder
(C) Fraud
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

52. Suppressio veri by a woman who was pregnant at the time of marriage is a ground for annulling the marriage as.
(A) Voidable
(B) Void
(C) Irregular
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Ans. (A)
53. If, during the period of judicial sepration, either spouse indulges in adultery, does it furnish a ground for divorce?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Not a ground
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

54. Before which authority Appeal will lie under section 160 of U.P. Municipalties Act, 1916 in a case tax assessed upon the annual value of building or land or both.
(A) State Government
(B) Prescribed Authority
(C) District Magistrate
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

55. Who becomes the guardian of illegitimate children on the mother’s death.
(A) Uncle
(B) Grandfather
(C) Father
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

56. Choose the correct form of the word from the alternative given below.
(A) Erroniously
(B) Erroneusly
(C) Erroneously
(D) Erroniously

Ans. (C)

57. Choose the correct form of the word from the alternative given below
(A) Envelope
(B) Certan
(C) Uncertain
(D) Conclud

Ans. (C)

58. What is the meaning of the word “Vituperation”.
(A) Questionable
(B) Resistance
(C) Absurdity
(D) Bitter criticism

Ans. (D)

59. What is the meaning of the word “Fallacy”.
(A) Flaw
(B) Cynic
(C) Blunder
(D) Truth

Ans. (C)

60. What is the meaning of the word “Clandestine”.
(A) Secluded
(B) Pungent
(C) Gloomy
(D) Secret

Ans. (D)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 41-50

41. What is the minimum percentage of total number of tenure holders on whose representation the collector can provide chak road or chak gul after notification under sub section (1) of section 52 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holding Act, 1953.
(A) Twenty percent
(B) Fifty percent
(C) Ten percent
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

42. Which full bench decision of this court has held Deputy Director of Consolidation has no power of review his judgement.
(A) Ram Kumar V. State of U.P. & others 2005 (99) RD 823
(B) Smt Guddi V. State of U.P. & others 1997 2 UPLBEC 872
(C) Smt. Shiv Raji and others v. Deputy Director of Consolidation and others 1997 (88) RD 562
(D) Daya Ram Singh v. State of U.P. 2007 (3) ESC 1760

Ans. (C)

43. Surcharge shall ceases to exist or can not be recovered.
(A) After completion of five years from the occurrence of such loss, waste or misapplication.
(B) After completion of ten years from the date on which the peson liable ceases to hold his office.
(C) After expiration of ten years from the occurrence of such loss, waster or ceases to hold his office, whichever is later.
(D) No limitation

Ans. (C)

44. Which section of the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 provides the power of execution of decree or order passed by a Nayay- Panchayat.
(A) Section 90
(B) Section 85
(C) Section 93
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

45. What maximum sentence a Nayay Panchayat or any member thereof can award for its contempt.
(A) Imprisonment for not more than ten days
(B) Fine not exceeding Rs. 100
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Fine not exceeding ten rupees

Ans. (D)

46. Under which section of U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 members and servants of Gram Panchayat are deemed to be public servant with in the meaning of section 21 of the Indian Penal Code.
(A) Section 27
(B) Section 42
(C) Section 43
(D) Section 28

Ans. (D)

47. Under Rule 32 of U.P. Panchayat Raj Act Rules, 1947 the notice of meeting of Gaon Sabha shall be given at least.
(A) 5 days before the date of meeting
(B) 7 days before the date of meeting
(C) Two weeks before the date of meeting
(D) Fifteen days before the date of meeting

Ans. (D)

48. The preamble to the Constitution of India was first amended vide.
(A) Constitution 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) Constitution 24th Amendment Act, 1971
(C) Constitution 75th Amendment Act, 1993
(D) Constitution 77th Amendment Act, 1995

Ans. (A)

49. The Eight Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for
(A) Panchayat Raj
(B) Anti Defection
(C) Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
(D) Official Languages

Ans. (D)

50. Puisne judge of a Supreme Court means.
(A) A judge of inferior scale
(B) An additional judge
(C) An associate judge
(D) An adhoc judge

Ans. (C)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 31-40

31. According to the amendment to the Transfer of Property Act, 2002 the period, with in the principle of section 106 of the Act shall commence from;
(A) Date of receipt of notice
(B) Date of issue of notice
(C) Date of summoning of notice
(D) 15 days from the expiry of notice.

Ans. (A)

32. Section 497 IPC, which punishes only a male participant in the offence of adultery is intra vires, in view of which provisions of the constitution of India.
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15 (3)
(C) Article 16 (4)
(D) Article 21

Ans. (B)

33. The period of limitation can not be extended under section 5 of the limitation Act in the following proceeding.
(A) An appeal filed under sub-section (3) of section 331 of the U.P. Zamindari abolition and land reforms act, 1950.
(B) Revision filed under section 333 of the U.P. Zamindari abolition and land reforms act, 1950.
(C) Application filed under sub-section (4) of section 198 of the U.P. Zamindari abolition and land reforms act, 1950.
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

34. Every Transfer made in contravention of the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act 1950 shall be.
(A) Invalid
(B) Valid
(C) Void
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

35. What is the maximum limit of holding for which benefit under section 122 B (4f) can be ext ended (inclusive of the land earlier held by a member of scheduled caste or scheduled tribes)
(A) 3.125 acres
(B) 3.025 acres
(C) 3.250 acres
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

36. After how many years a bhumidhar with non transferable right acquires the right to be recorded as bhumidhar with transferable right.
(A) Five years
(B) Fifteen years
(C) Seven years
(D) Ten years

Ans. (D)

37. Who is entitled to take over the land after extinction of right of a Bhumidhar.
(A) A trust greated for charitable purpose
(B) Educational Institutions
(C) Land Management Committee
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

38. Order passed under sub-section (3) of Section 8 of U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 is-
(A) Revisable
(B) Appealable
(C) Neither Appelable nor Revisable
(D) Final

Ans. (B)

39. Which Section of U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act Provides correction of clerical or arithmetical errors.
(A) Section 41 A
(B) Section 44 A
(C) Section 42 A
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

40. What is the limitation provided under section 52 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 for moving representation by the tenure holders for Chak road and chak gul after notification issued under sub-section (1) of section 52 of the Act.
(A) 90 days
(B) 30 days
(C) Six month
(D) None of the above

Ans. (C)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 21-30

21. Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under section 34 of Evidence Act
(A) If they by themselves create a liability
(B) If they by themselves do not create a liability
(C) Irrespective of whether they themselves create a liability or not
(D) Either (a) or (b)

Ans. (C)

22. Under Section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible
(A) Must relate to the cause of his own death
(B) May relate to the cause of someone else’ death.
(C) May relate to the cause of his own death or someone else’ death.
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

23. Which amendment act of the constitution reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
(A) Sixtieth Amendment 1988
(B) Sixty-First Amendment 1989
(C) Sixty-Second Amendment 1990
(D) Sixty-Third Amendment 1990

Ans. (B)

24. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court struck down that legislators cannot be disqualified on his conviction in a criminal case if he/she files an appeal in the appropriate court:
(A) Golaknath V. State of Punjab
(B) Keshvananda Bharti Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Sankari Prasad Vs. UOI
(D) Lily Thomas Vs. Union Bank of India

Ans. (D)

25. ‘Doctrine of unjust enrichment' was laid down by the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?
(A) Sarla Mudgal V. Union of India
(B) Mafatlal Industries Ltd. Vs. Union of India
(C) S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India
(D) Unni Krishnan Vs. State of A.P.

Ans. (B)

26. What is the maximum period within which landlord is required to give notice to the District Magistrate regarding the filing of vacancy under section 15 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972
(A) Two weeks
(B) Seven days
(C) Thirty days
(D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

27. Parties to the suit can compromise in a suit
(A) Under order XXIII, Rule 3A of CPC
(B) Under order XXIII, Rule 3 of CPC
(C) Under order XXIII, Rule 1 of CPC
(D) Under order XXIII, Rule 4 of CPC

Ans. (B)

28. The chapter that deals with gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(A) Applies to Mohammadan gift also
(B) Does not apply to Mohammadan gift
(C) Applies to all caste, creed, etc.
(D) Applies to Parsi gift only.

Ans. (B)

29. The gift of future property is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Conditionally void

Ans. (A)

30. A notice under section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 can be waived:
(A) By express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given
(B) By implied consent of the person to whom it is given.
(C) By express consent of the person to whom it is given.
(D) By notice from either party.

Ans. (A)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 11-20

11. A witness, who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court; evidence so given shall be deemed to be-
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Documentary evidence
(D) Oral evidence

Ans. (D)

12. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under-
(A) Order V Rule 9A C.P.C.
(B) Order V Rule 9 C.P.C.
(C) Order IV Rule 7 C.P.C.
(D) Order VI Rule 6 C.P.C.

Ans. (A)

13. ‘B’ takes a gold ring of ‘A’ out of ‘A’s possession without ‘A’s consent with the intention of keeping it till ‘A’ gives ‘B’ some money for its restoration to ‘A’, ‘B’ is guilty of-
(A) Cheating
(B) Criminal beach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriate of property
(D) Theft

Ans. (D)

14. The Magistrate cannot order investigation by CBI. It was held in:
(A) CBI V. State of Rajasthan (2001) 3 SCC 333
(B) Secy. Minor Irrigation & Rural Engg. Services, U.P.v. Sahngoo Ram Arya (2002) 5 SCC 521
(C) Union Bank of India V. Prakash P. Hinduja (2003) 6 SCC 195
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

15. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr.P.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against
(A) Accused offender
(B) A surety
(C) A witness
(D) All the above

Ans. (D)

16. Who among the following has made distinction between distributive justice and corrective justice?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) John Stuart Mill
(D) John Austin

Ans. (B)

17. As per section 195A of IPC which was insereted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 the offence of threatening any person to give false evidence, is punishable with
(A) Imprisonment up to 7 years or with fine or with both
(B) Imprisonment up to 5 years or with fine or with both
(C) Imprisonment up to 3 years or with fine or with both
(D) Imprisonment up to 1 years or with fine or with both

Ans. (A)

18. Two ladies of young age, A & B fight with each other. A was having a blade with which ‘A’ inflicits injury on the face of B leaving a scar on the cheek of B. A is guilty of offence of causing
(A) Grievous hurt
(B) Grievous hurt by rash or negligent act
(C) Simple hurt
(D) Simple hurt by rash or negligent act

Ans. (A)

19. Under Section 13 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 which of the following shall fall in the category of unauthorized occupant/trespasser:
(A) A person who occupies the building without consent of landlord
(B) A person who occupies the building without consent of Rent Control and Eviction Officer.
(C) A person who occupies the building without an order of allotment.
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)

20. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
(A) Section 154
(B) Section 118
(C) Section 32
(D) Section 90A

Ans. (A)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2014 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 01-10

1. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Topic of Cancer.
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Nagpur

Ans. (B)

2. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance?
(A) Article 215
(B) Article 275
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 353

Ans.

3. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill
(D) Constitution Amendment Bill

Ans. (D)

4. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of
(A) Assam Himalayas
(B) Kumaon Himalayas
(C) Nepal Himalayas
(D) Punjab Himalayas

Ans. (B)

5. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy'?
(A) A.B. Vajpayee
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) P.C. Alexander
(D) Yashwant Sinha

Ans. (A)

6. Which country won the ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup- 2014 ?
(A) India
(B) South Africa
(C) Australia
(D) England

Ans. (B)

7. Which of the following is the lightest metal?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Lithium
(D) Lead

Ans. (C)

8. Nathu La pass connects.
(A) Sikkim and Tibet
(B) Himachal Pradesh to Tibet
(C) Uttrakhand to Tibet
(D) Arunachal Pradesh to China

Ans. (A)

9. Which of the following sets of bills is presented to the parliament along with budget?
(A) Direct taxes and indirect taxes bill
(B) Contingency bill and Appropriation bill
(C) Finance bill and Appropriation bill
(D) Finance bill and Contingency bill

Ans. (C)

10. Novation of a contract under Indian Contract Act means-
(A) Cancellation of contract
(B) Alteration of the contract
(C) The renewal of original contract
(D) Substitution of a new contract in place of original contract

Ans. (D)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

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Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 91-100

91. Against an arder of release passed by the District Magistrate under section 16 of U.R Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972-
(A) an appeal is maintainable before the District Judge
(B) an appeal is maintainable before the Commissioner
(C) the revision is maintainable before the District Judge
(D) the revision is maintainable before the High Court.

Ans. (C)

92.. Under Seen 24 of the U.P. Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 a tenant has option of re-entry-
(A ) when the tenant has been evicted on a suit filed by landlord for eviction on any of the grounds as mentioned under sub section (4) of Section 20 of the Act
(B) when the tenant vacates the premises on a promise made by landlord to permit re-entry after reconstruction of the building
(C) when the landlord after release under section 21(1) (b) of the Act demolishes the building and constructs new building
(D) when the tenant vacates the premises temporarily.

Ans. (C)

93. An elected member of the municipal board can be removed by-
(A) a resolution passed by municipal board by simple majority
(B) a resolution passed by municipal board by 2/3rd majority
(C) an order passed by the State Government
(D) an order passed by the President of the Municipal Board.

Ans. (C)

94. The Gram Sabha under the U.R Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 means-
(A) a body consisting of all adult males residing in Gram Sabha
(B) a body consisting of all adult males and females residing in Gram Sabha
(C) a body consisting of all the persons registered in the electoral rolls
(D) a body consisting of all inhabitants residing in Gram Sabha.

Ans. (C)

95. The Development Authority under the U.R Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 can make any amendment in the zonal development plan as it thinks fit-
(A) which amendments in its opinion effect important alterations in the character of the plan
(B) which amendments in its opinion relate to the extent of the land uses
(C) which amendments in its opinion do not relate to the standards or population density
(D) which amendments in its opinion relate to the standards or population density.

Ans. (C)

96. What is the maximum area which can be allotted to an agricultural labourer of the of the village for abadi site under the U.P.Z.A. & L.R. Rules, 1952?
(A) 100 square meters
(B) 250 square meters
(C) 50 square meters
(D) No maximum limit prescribed.

Ans. (B)

97. When a female bhumidhar or asami other than a bhumidhar or asami mentioned in Sections 171&172 of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act dies, her interest in the holding shall devolve on which of her following heirs, first to the exclusion of others-
(A) Sister’s son
(B) Sister
(C) Brother
(D) Brother’s son.

Ans. (C)

98. Where the office of Pradhan is vacant by resignation of previous incumbent, which of the following procedures be adopted for discharging the duties of Pradhan?
(A) The Gram Sabha shall pass a resolution by 2/3rd majority electing any other person to discharge the duties of Pradhan
(B) The Gram Panchayat shall pass a resolution electing any member of Gram Panchayat to act as Pradhan
(C) The Up-Pradhan shall discharge duties of Pradhan till fresh election is held for the office of Pradhan
(D) The prescribed authority shall nominate a member of the Gram Panchayat to discharge the duties of Pradhan.

Ans. (D)

99. A bhumidhar or asami belonging to Scheduled Tribes can transfer any land by way of lease to a person belonging to which of the following categories?
(A) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes
(B) A person not belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes with prior permission of Assistant Collector First Class
(C) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes with the permission of Assistant Collector.
(D) A person belonging to Scheduled Tribes.

Ans. (D)

100. By-laws of a Municipal Board can be framed in which of following manners? .
(A) The State Government shall frame by-laws for the Municipal Board.
(B) The by-laws of the Municipal Board can be framed by passing a resolution by the Municipal Board.
(C) The by-laws can be framed by Municipality only by a special resolution after previous publication.
(D) The by-law can be framed by the President of the Municipal Board

Ans. (C)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

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Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 81-90

81. The accused inflicted injuries on non-vital parts of the deceased which were not found to be sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death but it was proved that he inflicted the injuries with a nowledge that with these injuries the victim was likely to die. The case would be punishable under section-
(A) 302 I.P.C.
(B) 303 I.P.C.
(C) 304 Part I I.P.C.
(D) 304 Part II I.P.C.

Ans. (D)

82. The termination of pregnancy will attract penal provisions of Section 312 I.P.C. if it is done-
(A) to prevent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman
(B) in view of the substantial risk that if the child is born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
(C) as the pregnancy is alleged by pregnant woman to have been caused by rape
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (D)

83. Which kind of hurt is not grievous?
(A) Any hurt which endangers life.
(B) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of 15 days in severe bodily pain.
(C) Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.
(D) Privation of any member or joint.

Ans. (B)
84. ‘A’ finds a ring belonging to ‘Z’ on a table in the house which ‘Y’ occupies . A dishonestly removes the ring. A has committed which of the following offence?
(A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Criminal misappropriation of property
(C) Theft
(D) Dishonestly receiving stolen property.

Ans. (C)

85. Theory of retribution-
(A) is a theory in which exemplary punishment shall be given to criminal
(B) is a theory that a criminal should be punished in proportion to his offence
(C) is a theory in which the criminal must be reformed
(D) is a theory in which criminal should be sent to open jail.

Ans. (B)

86. ‘A’ is a good swimmer looks ‘B’ drowning but does not try to save ‘A’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of-
(A) murder
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) causing death due to negligent act.
(D) not committed any offence.

Ans. (D)
87. In which of the following sections of U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1955, a revenue court can grant injunction?
(A) Section 229-A
(B) Section 229-B
(C) Section 229-C
(D) Section 229-D.

Ans. (D)

88. Re-possession of the leased land after eviction is punishable under which Section of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act?
(A) 115-C
(B) 122-F
(C) 198-A
(D) 209.

Ans. (C)

89. Section 11A of the UP. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 bars-
(A) a fresh suit before civil Court
(B) a fresh suit before revenue court
(C) objection pertaining to title
(D) objection pertaining to allotment of chaks.

Ans. (C)

90. Section 52-A of the U.R Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 empowers the-
(A) Director of Consolidation to make provisions for chak roads or chak guls
(B) Deputy Director of Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guIs
(C) Collector to provide for chak roads or chak guls
(D) Settlement Officer Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guls.

Ans. (C)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

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Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 71-80

71. A joint statement of several witnesses recorded during investigation-
(A) will render these persons as incompetent witnesses
(B) will render their statement as inadmissible
(C) will neither render these persons as incompetent witnesses nor their evidence as inadmissible
(D) will render these persons as incompetent witnesses as well as their evidence as inadmissible.

Ans. (C)
72. For an offence punishable with three years imprisonment the limitation prescribed under Cr.P.C. is-
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 3 years
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)

73. An order passed under Section 125 of Cr.RC. can be challenged by the unsuccessful party by filing a revision-
(A) only before Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) only before Sessions Judge
(C) only before High Court
(D) Either before the Sessions Judge or High Court.

Ans. (D)

74. In case of merger of the complaint with the police report, the procedure to be followed for the trial-
(A) shall be of the complaint case
(B) shall be of the case instituted on the police report
(C) shall be of both as per convenience during the trial
(D) shall be the one as directed by the Magistrate.

Ans. (B)
75. Power under Section 319 of Cr.RC. can be exercised-
(A) by the Magistrate and the Court of Sessions both only after recording of evidence during the inquiry or trial
(B) by the Magistrate before recording of evidence but by the Court of Sessions only after recording of evidence
(C) by The Magistrate and the Court of Sessions both even before recording of evidence
(D) . by the Magistrate only after recording evidence but by the Court of Sessions before recording of evidence.

Ans. (A)

76. ‘A’ and ‘B’ were about to travel from Allahabad to Delhi by the same train. ‘B’ had two tickets from Allahabad to Aligarh and ‘A’ had a ticket from Allahabad to Delhi ‘A’ voluntarily handed over his ticket to ‘B’ in order to check that it was the right one; ‘B’ under the pretence of returning ‘A’s ticket substituted it by one of his own and kept ‘A’s ticket. What offence did ‘B’ commit?
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Criminal misappropriation
(D) Cheating.

Ans. (C)

77. Section 73 of the I.RC. provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be-
(A) one year
(B) two years
(C) three months
(D) six months.

Ans. (C)

78. If the offence is punishable with fine only, the imprisonment which the court imposes in default of payment of the fine shall be-
(A) only simple
(B) only rigorous
(C) either simple or rigorous
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

79. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is-
(A) under 7 years of age
(B) under 14 years of age
(C) under 14 years of age
(D) under 16 years of age

Ans. (A)

80. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(A) For an unlawful assembly the number of persons must be five or more.
(B) Mere presence of a person at the scene of offence does not make him a member of an unlawful assembly.
(C) An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled may subsequently become an unlawful assembly.
(D) When the accused persons are charged for committing mischief and for rioting separately, the acquittal from charge of mischief would entail automatically acquittal from charge of rioting.

Ans. (D)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Adv. Sanjay Dixit HJS Solved Papers , UPHJS Pre 2012 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 61-70

61. A Magistrate convicts an accused of theft for one year imprisonment and one thousand fine. Maximum punishment for which accused can be sentenced to imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall be-
(A) 1 year
(B) 9 months
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months

Ans. (B)
62. A Magistrate may not remand the accused to police custody for-
(A) more than 24 hours
(B) more than 7 days
(C) more than 14 days
(D) more than 15 days

Ans. (D)

63. Presumption under the law of evidence are-
(A) presumption of facts
(B) presumptions of law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only (B) and not (A).

Ans. (C)

64. A leading question can be asked in-
(A) examination-in-chief
(B) cross-examination
(C) re-examination
(D) All of the above.

Ans. (B)

65. Under Section 145 of the Evidence Act a witness may be cross examined as to previous statement in writing
(A) after proving the same and showing the same to the witness
(B) without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
(C) after proving the same and reading the same to the witness
(D) without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness.

Ans. (D)

66. A witness summoned to produce a document can refuse to bring it before the court on the ground that-
(A) the record in question is unpublished record
(B) the record in question relates to an affair of State
(C) the record is admissible
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (D)

67. The opinion of expert may be obtained under Section 40 of the Evidence Act in relation to-
(A) Science, Art, Law, Finger impression and handwriting/signature
(B) Science including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger impression and handwriting
(C) Science, including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger impression, handwriting and signatures
(D) Science, Art, Foreign law, Finger impression and handwriting/signature. —

Ans. (D)

68. In criminal cases previous bad character of accused is-
(A) relevant
(B) always irrelevant
(C) relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good character
(D) relevant when evidence has been given that he has a good character and when bad character is itself in issue.

Ans. (D)

69. Under Section 372 of Cr.RC. a victim-
(A) can file an appeal against the order of acquittal
(B) can file an appeal only after obtaining leave from the appellate court
(C) has no right to file an appeal
(D) should approach the District Magistrate and Public Prosecutor for filing an appeal.

Ans. (A)

70. A non confessional statement recorded under Section 164 of Cr.RC..
(A) is a substantive piece of evidence
(B) is not a substantive piece of evidence
(C) may or may not be substantive evidence depending upon the facts and cicumstances
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (B)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

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Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 51-60

51. A Garnishee order is an order-
(A) prohibiting the judgment debtor’s debtor from making any payment to the judgment debtor
(B) directing the decree holder to take the payment from the judgment debtor’s debtor
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)

52. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit-
(A) for partition
(B) of partnership
(C) for possession and mesne profits
(D) All the above.

Ans. (D)

53. Order XXVI, Rule 4A C.P.C., empowers the court to issue commission in a suit for examination of a person-
(A) resident within the local limits of its jurisdiction ‘
(B) resident beyond the local limits of its jurisdiction
(C) who is about to leave the local limits of its jurisdiction
(D) Both (A) and (B).

Ans. (A)

54. A suit for compensation for wrong done to the person or to moveable property, where the wrong was done within the local jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within the local limits of another court
(A) can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the wrong has been committed
(B) can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the defendant resides
(C) Either (A) or (B) at the option of the plaintiff
(D) can be instituted anywhere in India.

Ans. (C)

55. Compounding of an offence will result in-
(A) acquittal
(B) discharge
(C) compromise
(D) conviction.

Ans. (A)

56. In a summary trial maximum punishment of imprisonment can be-
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years.

Ans. (D)

57. Period of appearance for proclamation issued under Section 82 of Cr.P.C. is not less than-
(A) 15 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days.

Ans. (B)

58. A revision can be filed against an order passed by Sub Divisional Magistrate under Section 145(6) of Cr.P.C. in the court of-
(A) District Magistrate
(B) ADM (Administration)
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) Sessions Judge.

Ans. (D)

59. An offence of theft can be tried by a court under whose jurisdiction-
(A) the theft has been committed
(B) the stolen property is found in possession of thief
(C) the stolen property is kept by the accused knowing it to be stolen
(D) Any of the above.

Ans. (D)

60. If an offence is punishable with fine only then the limitation for taking cognizance will be-
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years.

Ans. (A)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

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Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 41-50

41. "In pari delicto” means-
(A) where parents are at fault
(B) in case of equal fault or guilt
(C) a person with guilty mind
(D) a delinquent criminal

Ans. (B)

42. Which of the following mode of transfer of property is not covered by Transfer of Property Act, 1882-
(A) Sale
(B) Mortgage
(C) Testamentary disposition
(D) Exchange.

Ans. (C)

43. According to Section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the provisions of some sections shall not apply in the case of a transfer of property for the benefit of the public in the advancement of religion, knowledge, commerce, health safety or any other object beneficial to mankind. These sections are-
(A) 13,14,15&16
(B) 14,16&17
(C) 14,16,17 &18
(D) 14,15 & 20.

Ans. (B)

44. The leading case of Hindu husband’s entering second marriage on conversion to islam is-
(A) Mohini Jam’s case, 1992(3) SCC 666
(B) Daniel Latifi’s case, 2001(7) SCC 740
(C) Saila Mudgal’s case, 1995(3) SCC 635
(D) Shah Bano’s case, 1985(2) SCC 556.

Ans. (C)

45. For a valid Muslim marriage-
(A) offer and acceptance must be at the same time
(B) offer and acceptance must be at the same place
(C) offer and acceptance must be at the same time and same place
(D) offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different places.

Ans. (C)

46. A suit for recovery of possession of an immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed against
(A) a private individual only
(B) a government
(C) both a private individual and a government
(D) neither (A) nor (B).

Ans. (A)

47. The trustee has no right to be reimbursed for-
(A) the expenses made by him for improvement of the property
(B) the expenses reasonably necessary to the due administration of the trust
(C) the preservation of the trust property
(D) the protection of rights of beneficiaries.

Ans. (A)

48. 'Professional Communication' between Advocate and his client-
(A) is not admissible in evidence
(B) is a privilege communication only until the contract continues
(C) is admissible in evidence with consent of the client
(D) is not admissible until it is legal.

Ans. (C)

49. Remedies available against an ex-parte decree include-
(A) appeal
(B) review
(C) application for setting aside the decree
(D) All the above.

Ans. (D)
50. Who amongst the following is not a ‘public officer’ within the meaning of section 2(17) of CPC?
(A) A Judge
(B) A person in service under the pay of Government
(C) Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)

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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

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Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 31-40

31. Which of the following is not an essential requisite for creating a partnership as per Section 4 of the Partnership Act?
(A) An agreement to carry on a business
(B) Sharing of profits
(C) Sharing of losses
(D) Business to be carried by all or any of them acting for all.

Ans. (C)

32. In case of adoption of a son by a Hindu male, the son must be-
(A) less than twenty one years of age
(B) less than eighteen years of age
(C) less than fifteen years of age
(D) less than nine years of age.

Ans. (C)

33. Adoption is not recognized under the-
(A) Muhammadan law
(B) Parsi law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).

Ans. (C)

34. Parties by their consent/ agreement-
(A) can confer jurisdiction on a court where there is none in law
(B) can oust the jurisdiction of a court when there is one in law
(C) can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are two courts having simultaneous jurisdiction in law
(D) All the above.

Ans. (C)

35. A pleader has a duty to inform the court about the death of parties under-
(A) Order 22 Rule 1 C.P.C.
(B) Order 22 Rule 4 C.RC.
(C) Order 22 Rule 8 C.P.C.
(D) Order 22 Rule 1OA C.P.C.

Ans. (D)

36. Which is correct?
(A) Proposal+acceptance = promise
(B) Promise+ consideration = agreement
(C) agreement+enforceability = contract
(D) All the above.

Ans. (D)

37. A contract which is valid initially however, ceases to be enforceable subsequently, the contract-
(A) remains valid
(B) becomes voidable when it ceases to be enforceable
(C) becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
(D) becomes void since inception.

Ans. (C)

38. ‘A’ transfers property to ‘B’ for life and after his death to ‘C, and ‘D’, equally to be divided between them or to the survivors of them. ‘C’ dies during the life time of ‘B’. ‘D’ survives ‘B’. At B’s death the property-
(A) shall pass to D
(B) shall pass to D and survivors of C
(C) the transfer becomes void at the death of C during B’s lifetime
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (A)

39. A settlement made to defeat and defraud creditors is voidable under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Section 52
(B) Section 53
(C) Section 54
(D) Section 55.

Ans. (B)

40. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act declares as void agreement-
(A) in restraint of marriage
(B) in restraint of legal proceedings
(C) in restraint of trade
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (B)

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Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 21-30

21. The Supreme Court through which of the following judicial pronouncements has made all marriages compulsorily registrable?
(A) Zahira Sheikh Vs. State of Gujarat (2004) 4 SCC 158
(B) Vishaka Vs. State of Rajasthan (1997) 6 SCC 241
(C) Mohammad Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum (1985) 2 SCC 556
(D) Smt. Seema Vs. Ashwani Kumar (2006) 2 SCC 578

Ans. (D)

22. Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution of India may be granted by Supreme Court-
(A) only against the orders and judgments of the High courts
(B) from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order under any cause or matter passed or made by any court or Tribunal in territory of India
(C) against any appel1ate order or judgment passed by the Courts or Tribunal in India
(D) against the order or judgment of the High Court passed only in Public Interest Litigation.

Ans. (B)

23. Which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been dealt with in Article 143 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Appellate
(B) Writ
(C) Original
(D) None of the above

Ans. (D)

24. The prohibition regarding discussion in Parliament with regard to conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of the High Court in discharge of his duties is contained in Article-
(A) 121
(B) 211
(C) 124
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (A)

25. The freedom of Press in India is-
(A) available to the people under the laws of the Parliament
(B) specifically provided in the Constitution of India
(C) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(D) available to the people under executive orders.

Ans. (C)

26. The District Judge can be given power to issue prerogative writs by-
(A) order of Supreme Court under Article 141 of the Constitution of India
(B) Executive Orders issued by the Governor in consultation with the High Court under Article 162 of the Constitution of India.
(C) the Parliament by law under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
(D) the High Court by a decision of Full Court.

Ans. (C)

27. Which of the following is not included in Electoral college for electing president?
(A) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Elected Members of the Legislative Assembly of the State
(C) Elected Members of the Legislative Council
(D) Elected members of the Lok Sabha.

Ans. (C)

28. 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains-
(A) powers, authorities and resppnsibilities of the municipalities endowed to it by State Legislature
(B) powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayat endowed to it by Parliament
(C) powers, authorities and responsibilities which any local Government can exercise.
(D) powers, authorities and responsibilities endowed to Panchayat by State Legislature.

Ans. (D)

29. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy privilege of exemption from arrest or detention in prison-
(A) only under Civil process and during the continuance of a joint sit ing/ meeting/ conference or joint committee of Houses of Parliament or Houses of State Legislature as the case may be and during 40 days before and after such sitting/ meeting/ comference
(B) under Civil as well as Criminal process and as all times save with the permission of the Speaker or the Chairperson as the case may be.
(C) under Civil as well as Criminal process but only when the house is in session
(D) do not enjoy any such exemption.

Ans. (C)

30. How many members can be nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?
(A) 1/6th
(B) 1/12th
(C) 1/3rd
(D) 1/9th

Ans. (A)

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