Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Monday, March 31, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 41-50

41. Which amongst the following cannot be levied by a Development Authority?
(A) Mutation charges
(B) Water fees
(C) Fee on carrying a trade or business in a development area
(D) Betterment charges

Ans: (C)

42. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all-
(A) each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone
(B) each of such person is liable for his own overt act
(C) each of such person shall liable according to the extent of his participation in the crime
(D) both (B) and (C)

Ans: (A)

43. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’.
(A) only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of ‘Z’
(B) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
(C) ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform overt act
(D) both (A) and (C)

Ans: (B)

44. Section 76 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of-
(A) Mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
(B) Mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
(C) Mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
(D) All the above

Ans: (A)

45. Which Section of IPC has been declared unconstitutional and violative of Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Section 314
(B) Section 301
(C) Section 303
(D) Section 306

Ans: (C)

46. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication-
(A) can be self administered
(B) administered against his will or knowledge
(C) should not be self administered
(D) All the above

Ans: (B)

47. In a case of free fight between two parties-
(A) right of private defence is available to both the parties
(B) right of private defence is available to individuals against individual
(C) no right of private defence is available to either party
(D) right of private defence is available only to one party

Ans: (C)

48. For proving an offence under Section 307 of IPC-
(A) intention to commit murder has to be proved
(B) causing of grievous hurt is to be proved
(C) use of lethal weapon is to be proved
(D) actual injury is to be proved

Ans: (A)

49. Preparation to commit murder is-
(A) punishable
(B) not punishable
(C) punishable with fine
(D) All the above

Ans: (B)

50. Preparation to commit dacoity is a -
(A) punishable offence
(B) not punishable offence
(C) no offence
(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Saturday, March 29, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 31-40

31. Who is authority competent to issue notice to evict and realize damages from a person who has damaged or misappropriated or found in occupation of a Gaon Sabha land unauthorizedly?
(A) Land Management Committee
(B) Lekhpal of the circle
(C) Assistant Collector concern
(D) Collector

Ans: (C)

32. Under the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Reforms Act, 1950 at present classes of tenure are-
(A) Bhumidhar, Sirdar, Adhivasi and Asami
(B) Bhumidhar with transferable right and Bhumidhar with non transferable rights
(C) Bhumidhari with transferable rights, Bhumidhar with non transferable rights, Asami and Government lessee
(D) Bhumidhari with transferable rights, Bhumidhar with non transferable rights & Asami

Ans: (C)

33. Which amongst the following is not exempted from operation of U.P. Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972?
(A) Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector corporation or a Cantonment Board is landlord
(B) Any building belonging to or vested in a recognized educational institutional
(C) Any building of which the Government or a local authority or a public sector corporation or a cantonment Board is the tenant
(D) Any building, whose monthly rent exceeds two thousand rupees

Ans: (C)

34. Which amongst the following is not a ground under section 20 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972 for instituting a suit for eviction?
(A) That the tenant is in arrears of rent for not less than four months, and has failed to pay the same to the landlord within one month from the date of service upon him of a notice of demand
(B) That the tenant has without the permission in writing of the landlord made or permitted to be made any such construction or structural alteration in the building as is likely to diminish its value or utility or the disfigure it
(C) That the tenant without the permission of the landlord allowed one of his relatives to live with him in the tenanted accommodation
(D) That the tenant has sub-let, in contraventions of the provisions of section 25, as the case may be, of the old Act the whole or any part of the building

Ans: (C)

35. Amongst the following which is not a ground for release of a building under Section 21 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting Rent & Eviction) Act, 1972?
(A) That the building is bonafide required either in its existing form or after demolition and new construction by the landlord for occupation himself or any member of his family for residential purpose
(B) That the building is bonafide required either in its existing form or after demolition and new construction by the landlord for occupation himself or any member of his family for purposes of any profession, trade or calling
(C) In case of a residential building for occupation for business purposes
(D) That the building is in a dilapidated condition and is required for purposes of demolition and new construction

Ans: (C)

36. The President of a Municipal Board on charges can be removed by which amongst the following?
(A) The Municipal Board by simple majority
(B) By the electorate who elected the president by simple majority
(C) By the State Government
(D) By the Commissioner of the Division

Ans: (C)

37. Which amongst the following is correct process for removal of the Pradhan of a Gaon Sabha?
(A) The Pradhan can be removed by majority of the villagers
(B) The Pradhan can be removed by majority of the members of the Gram Sabha
(C) The Pradhan can be removed by the majority of two-third of the members of the Gaon Sabha present and voting
(D) By an order passed by District Deputy Collector

Ans: (C)

38. Upon the publication of the notification under Sub-section (2) of Section 4 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953, no tenure holder shall use his holding or any part therefore for purposes not connected with agriculture, horticulture or animal husbandry including pisciculture and poultry farming except with the permission in writing of-
(A) Consolidation officer
(B) Deputy Director of Consolidation
(C) Settlement Officer of Consolidation
(D) Consolidation Commissioner

Ans: (C)

39. In proceedings under the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 which provisions amongst the following is not applicable-
(A) Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act
(B) Chapter IX and X of U.P. Land Revenue Act, 1901
(C) Order XXI of Civil Procedure code
(D) Section 196 of Indian Penal Code

Ans: (C)

40. The authority competent to grant permission for development of land in a development area under U.P. Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 is-
(A) Development Authority
(B) Chairman of the Development Authority
(C) Vice-Chairman of the Development Authority
(D) State Government

Ans: (C)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Thursday, March 27, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 21-30


21. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 confers legitimacy on the children of-
(A) a void marriage
(B) a voidable marriage
(C) a valid marriage
(D) both void and voidable marriages

Ans: (D)

22. A Talaq can be effected-
(A) orally by spoken words
(B) in writing
(C) only (A) and not (B)
(D) either (A) or (B)

Ans: (D)

23. For a valid Muslim marriage-
(A) offer and acceptance must be at the same time
(B) offer and acceptance must be at the same place
(C) offer and acceptance must be at the same time and place
(D) offer and acceptance may be at different times and at different place

Ans: (C)

24. A Muslim can divorce his wife-
(A) whenever he so desires without assigning any cause
(B) whenever he so desires but only with a cause
(C) whenever he so desires without assigning any cause but only in the presence of the wife
(D) either (B) or (C)

Ans: (A)

25. During operation of proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, the enforcement of Fundamental Rights can be suspended except Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles-
(A) 14 & 19
(B) 15 & 21A
(C) 20 & 21
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

26. In execution of a decree a movable property is aution sold by the executing court. The auction purchaser deposits the entire auction price then and there even before expiry of 30 days and takes the delivery of the auctioned property. An objection complaining that the auction was conducted with material irregularity is filed within 30 days from the date of auction. State which one of the following is legally correct?
(A) Objection is maintainable as it has been filed within 30 days of the auction
(B) Auction sale is vitiated as the auction property has been delivered without waiting for its confirmation within 30 days of auction
(C) No confirmation of sale is required in the present case
(D) None of the above is correct

Ans: (C)

27. In a miscellaneous appeal arising out of a pending suit defendant appealant dies and an application for substitution is filed and allowed. Appeal is decided three years thereafter. Subsequently, when the suit is taken up, an objection that the suit has abated as no application to substitute the heirs of the deceased was filed therein within the prescribed period, is raised from the side of the defendant. Suggest the stand legally open to such plaintiff?
(A) Plaintiff may apply for substitution with an application for condonation of delay
(B) Information of death of defendant was not given to the trial court, therefore, shelter of Order 22 Rule 10 CPC may be invoked
(C) Record of the trial court was in appeal and thus, the plaintiff was prevented by sufficient cause in not filing the substitution application earlier
(D) The substitution allowed in miscellaneous appeal would ensure in the suit also and application for substitution is not required as the heirs are on the record

Ans: (D)

28. Whether the following proposition is legally correct or not?
“The principle so far as it relates to the amendment of plaint is equally applicable to the amendment of written statement. By way of amendment in plaint a time barred plea cannot be allowed to be raised so also in the case of written statement.”
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Partially correct
(D) None of the above is applicable

Ans: (A)

29. In which of the following case, the plaint will be ordered to be returned for presentation to the proper court:
(A) The plaintiff frames his suit in a manner not warranted by the facts and goes for his relief to a court which cannot grant him
(B) The plaintiff chooses a wrong court in respect of territorial limits
(C) The plaintiff chooses a wrong court in respect of pecuniary limits
(D) Both (B) and (C)

Ans: (D)

30. Which of the following is a leading case on the exclution of the jurisdiction of civil courts?
(A) Dhulabhai V. State of M.P.
(B) Gundaji V. Ramchandra
(C) Noor Mohd. Khan V. Fakirappa
(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)



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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Tuesday, March 25, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 11-20

11. You have to identify the particular Section of Transfer of Property Act to which the following quotation relates:

“where a granter has purported to grant an interest in land which he did not at the time possesses, but subsequently acquires, the benefit of his subsequent acquisition, goes automatically to the earlier grantee, or as it is usually expressed, feeds the estoppal.”
(A) Section 40
(B) Section 41
(C) Section 42
(D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

12. Section 53a of the transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with-
(A) fraudulent transfer
(B) transfer by ostensible owner
(C) part performance
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

13. Determination of lease is dealt with under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in-
(A) Section 108
(B) Section 107
(C) Section 113
(D) Section 111

Ans: (D)

14. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 imposes a prohibition on transfer or otherwise dealing of an property during the pendency of a suit, provided the conditions laid down in section are satisfied. The statement is:
(A) false
(B) true
(C) partly true
(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

15. The definition of ‘Sale’ is contained in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in Section-
(A) 105
(B) 100
(C) 54
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

16. What would be the status of a lessee of an immovable property on the expiry of a fixed term lease, if he continues in possession?
(A) Unauthorised occupant
(B) Tenant of holding over
(C) Tenant of sufferance
(D) Licensee

Ans: (B)

17. Which of the following is not a condition for a valid gift of immovable property?
(A) Registered instrument signed by on behalf of the doner
(B) Consideration
(C) Attestation by at least two witnesses
(D) Acceptance of gift by donee during the lifetime of the doner

Ans: (B)

18. X, an owner of house at Aligarh, left Aligarh in the year 1970 after appointing Y as its care taker to look after the house. Y starts living in the said house with the knowledge of X. X brings an action in the year 2005 against Y for delivery of possession of the house in question. Y takes the plea that (1) the suit is barred by time and (2) he has perfected the title by adverse possession. State whether-
(A) suit is barred by time
(B) Y has perfected his title by adverse possession
(C) Y is liable to succeed on both the pleas (1) and (2)
(D) None of the above pleas is sustainable

Ans: (D)

19. The marriage may be solemnized between two Hindus if-
(A) bridegroom completes the age of 21 and bride completes 18 years
(B) bridegroom completes the age of 18 and bride completes 21 years
(C) bridegroom completes the age of 21 and bride completes 21 years
(D) bridegroom completes the age of 18 and bride completes 18 years

Ans: (A)

20. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955-
(A) Does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite for solemnization of marriage but leaves it to the parties to choose a form of ceremonial marriage which is in accordance with any custom or usage applicable to either party
(B) Does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite nor leaves it to the parties to choose
(C) Does prescribe the ceremonies and does not leave it to the parties to choose
(D) Does prescribe the ceremonies and at the same time leaves it to the parties to choose

Ans: (A)


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Solved Paper | UPHJS Pre 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Sunday, March 23, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 01-10

1. Which is the correct meaning of word ‘embargo’?
(A) landing place
(B) prohibition
(C) disease of eye
(D) cargo

Ans: (B)

2. An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one or more of the parties and not of other or others under Section 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act is called-
(A) a valid contract
(B) an illegal contract
(C) a void contract
(D) a voidable contract

Ans: (D)

3. Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a minor under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act-
(A) cannot be enforced at all
(B) can be enforced against the minor personally on attaining majority
(C) can be enforced against the minor’s property or estate
(D) can be enforced against the guardian, if any, of the minor

Ans: (C)

4. An act, to be called on ‘act of firm’, within the meaning of section 2(a) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is-
(A) every act of the partners
(B) only such acts which give rise to a enforceable by or against the firm
(C) such acts which do not give rise to a right enforceable by or against the firm
(D) either (A) or (B) or (C)

Ans: (B)

5. Which of the following is a valid partnership?
(A) partnership between two partnership firm
(B) partnership between one partnership firm and an individual
(C) partnership between individual members of one firm and the individual members of another firm
(D) neither (A) nor (B) nor (C)

Ans: (C)

6. Easement is a right-
(A) in rem
(B) in personam
(C) neither (A) nor (B)
(D) in rem in general but in personam in exceptional cases

Ans: (A)

7. Damages awarded for tortuous liabilities are-
(A) liquidated
(B) unliquidated
(C) penal
(D) none of the above

Ans: (B)

8. Defamation by spoken words or gestures is known as-
(A) Innuendo
(B) Slander
(C) Libel
(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

9. The principle ‘facts speak for themselves’ is expressed by the maxim-
(A) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(B) Res ipsa Loquitur
(C) Novus Actus Interveniens
(D) Causa Causams

Ans: (B)

10. The liability of a master for acts of his servant in Law of Torts is called-
(A) Absolute liability
(B) Tortious liability
(C) Vicarious liability
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)


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Maharashtra Civil Judge (Junior Division) and Judicial Magistrate (First Class) Exam- 2014 | Recruitment Notification

Thursday, March 13, 2014

Maharashtra Public Service Commission
Civil Judge (Junior Division) and Judicial Magistrate (First Class) Examination- 2014
[Advt. No.- 65/2014]

Name of Post: Civil Judge (Junior Division) and Judicial Magistrate (First Class)
No. of Posts: 224
Pay-Scale: Rs. 27,700- 44,770

How to Apply: Apply Online through www.mahaonline.gov.in
Last Date: 18.03.2014
Date of Preliminary Exam: 07.06.2014

For further details and the full advertisement, visit the official webste of MPSC-
http://www.mpsc.gov.in/advertisements.jsp?head=1&status=1 

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Question Paper | U.P. PCS(J) Pre 2012 | Law | Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Wednesday, March 12, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 141-150

141. Which one of the following is not an illustration of criminal force?
(a) A spits over B.
(b) A removes the veil of a lady B causing annoyance to her.
(c) A shakes his fist at B.
(d) A pours boiling water in the bucket from which B was bathing.

142. Which of the following is an offence against body, property, and reputation and feelings under Indian Penal Code 1860? The offence of
(a) kidnapping
(b) abduction
(c) rape
(d) cheating

143. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable
(a) Under Section 363 Indian Penal Code
(b) Under Section 509 Indian Penal Code
(c) Under Section 511 Indian Penal Code
(d) Under Section 354 Indian Penal Code

144. “Law is not universal in nature, like language, it varies with people and ages.”
This proposition follows from the theory of
(a) Social utilitarianism
(b) Volksgeist
(c) Social Solidarity
(d) Social Engineering

145. “Judges not only discover law but also they made law.” This view is supported by
(a) Gray
(b) Dicey
(c) Salmond
(d) Blackstone

146. Dealing with the sources of law who amongst the following was said that, “The Courts fuel – life into the dead words of stature”?
(a) Holland
(b) Gray
(c) Salmond
(d) Austin

147. The period of limitation within which defendants shall submit his written statement is
(a) 30 days from service of summons.
(b) 40 days from service of summons.
(c) 60 days from service of summons.
(d) 120 days from service of summons.

148. Judgement under Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 means
(a) a decree
(b) dismissal of appeal summarily
(c) statement of grounds of an order or decree
(d) All the above

149. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides provision for the following:
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) Appeal to the Supreme Court

150. “No right of action is conferred on a transfer in possession under an unregistered contract of sale.”
Which Section of Transfer of Property Act 1882 contains this Principle?
(a) Section 35
(b) Section 41
(c) Section 53
(d) Section 53-A


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Question Paper | U.P. PCS(J) Pre 2012 | General Knowledge | Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012


Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 141-150

141. Monetary Policy in India is formulated and implemented by
(a) Government of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Indian Banks Association
(d) FICCI

142. Small Scale Industries are suited to Indian economic environment, because
(a) they lead to decentralization of economic activities
(b) they make use of local resources
(c) they are import-light and skill-light
(d) All the above.

143. Compilation of National Income is done by
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Central Services Organization
(d) Central Statistical Organization

144. Reserve Bank of India follows which system for the issue of currency?
(a) Minimum Reserve System
(b) Proportionate Reserve System
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

145. Which reason among the following explains the low growth rate of real National Income as compared to Monetary National Income?
(a) Population is increasing
(b) Inequalities are growing
(c) Price level is increasing
(d) Exports are lesser than imports

146. By December 31, 2010, which among the following countries had the largest Foreign Exchange Reserve?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Singapore
(d) India

147. The SEBI imposed a restriction on the money flow in the equity through “P-Notes”. What is the full form of “P-Notes”?
(a) Permanent Notes
(b) Purchase Notes
(c) Private Notes
(d) Participatory Notes

148. Which sector contributes the highest share in Gross Domestic Savings in India?
(a) Household Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Government Sector
(d) Private Corporate Sector

149. The rationale of Public Distribution System (PDS) is
(a) to control prices
(b) to reduce fluctuation in prices
(c) to ensure equitable distribution of essential goods
(d) All of the above.

150. Which of the following controls credit creation by the Commercial Banks in India?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Government of India
(d) State Bank of India


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Question Paper | U.P. PCS(J) Pre 2012 | General Knowledge | Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Question Paper | Uttarakhand PCS(J) Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Tuesday, March 11, 2014

Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) (Preliminary) Examination- 2009



Question Number: 191-200

191. "A person is not disqualified from succeeding to any property on the ground of any disease, defect or deformity" is provided under—
(A) Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(B) Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(C) Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(D) None of the above

192. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with "Restitution of Conjugal Rights" ?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 11

193. If parties to a Hindu marriage are sapinda to each other, the marriage is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) None of the above

194. A Hindu married woman of 32 years of age adopts a male child of 8 years with the consent of her husband. The adoption is—
(A) Valid
(B) Not valid
(C) Voidable at the option of husband
(D) None of the above

195. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two sons, one daughter and widow. His property shall devolve to—
(A) Sons only
(B) Sons and daughter only
(C) Widow only
(D) Sons, daughter and widow all

196. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who amongst the following is not in Class I heir ?
(A) Father
(B) Mother
(C) Son
(D) Daughter

197. Under Mitakshara School Coparcenary interest devolves by—
(A) Representation
(B) Survivorship
(C) Obstructed heritage
(D) Unobstructed heritage

198. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following is not entitled to adopt ?
(A) An unmarried person
(B) Husband with the consent of wife
(C) Wife who is divorced
(D) Husband without the consent of wife

199. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the provision relating to registration of marriage is given ?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 5

200. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a petition of divorce by mutual consent ?
(A) Section 13–A
(B) Section 13–B
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 9 


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Question Paper | Uttarakhand PCS(J) Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) (Preliminary) Examination- 2009SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Question Paper | U.P. PCS(J) Pre 2012 | Law | Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Monday, March 10, 2014


Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 131-140

131. Which of the following are correct combinations?
(1) Bentham and Natural law.
(2) Austin and Positivism
(3) Rosco Pound and Sociological School of Jurisprudence
(4) Henry Maine and Philosophical School of Jurisprudence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

132. Which one of the following is not a mode of acquisition of possession?
(a) Taking
(b) Delivery
(c) By operation of law
(d) Acquisition

133. “Custom is to society what law is to the State.” It has been said by
(a) Dias
(b) Salmond
(c) Lloyd
(d) Finch

134. Which of the following is not a Specialized Agency of the United Nations?
(a) Universal Postal Union
(b) United Nations Children’s Fund
(c) International Civil Aviation Organization
(d) International Finance Corporation

135. The powers and functions of United Nations are divided among how many principal organs?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 6

136. The real power of appointment of the UN Secretary General lies with
(a) The Security Council
(b) The General Assembly
(c) The General Assembly and the Security Council
(d) The five Permanent Members of the Security Council

137. Who was the Indian candidate for the post of Secretary General of the United Nations?
(a) Soli Sorbajee
(b) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(c) Vijay Nambiar
(d) Shashi Tharoor

138. International law also develops through State practices. It is known as
(a) International Treaty
(b) International Comity
(c) International Customary Law
(d) International Morality

139. Rule of State Succession was first incorporated from the Roman law by
(a) Bentham
(b) Kelsen
(c) Oppenheim
(d) Grotius

140. “To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty, but it may be the highest duty to sacrifice it.” This observation was made in Queen v. Dudley and Stephens by
(a) Lord Denman
(b) Lord Coleridge
(c) Lord Acton
(d) Justice Pollock


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Question Paper | U.P. PCS(J) Pre 2012 | Law | Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Question Paper | U.P. PCS(J) Pre 2012 | General Knowledge | Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012


Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 131-140

131. Delhi-Lahore Bus-Service is known as
(a) Sada-a’ Aman
(b) Sada-a-Sarhad
(c) Maitri Expenses
(d) Sadbhawna Express

132. The International Women Day is celebrated on
(a) 8th March
(b) 10th March
(c) 15th March
(d) 20th March

133. The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training set up by Government of India with headquarters at New Delhi does not have a regional centre at
(a) Guwahati
(b) Bhopal
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Udaipur

134. Of which country the ‘Associated Press’ is the main news agency?
(a) England
(b) France
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Germany

135. ‘Mossad’ is the Intelligence Organisation or which country?
(a) Egypt
(b) Iran
(c) Spain
(d) Israel

136. Which one of the following sites is not in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?
(a) Champaner-Pavgarh Archaeological Park
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Terminus
(c) Brihadisvara Temple Complex
(d) Valley of Flowers

137. Arrange the following countries in descending order as regards destination of labour outflows from India as figures of 2010:
1. Kuwait 
2. Oman
3. UAE 
4. Saudi Arabia

Select your answer from the given code:
Code:
(a) 4, 3, 1, 2
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

138. Who invented the world-wide-web (www)?
(a) Steve Jobs
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Robert Tannen Bam
(d) Tim Berner Lee

139. SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise conducted between
(a) India and Singapore
(b) India and China
(c) India and Indonesia
(d) India and Thailand

140. Indian Railways earn maximum revenue from
(a) Passenger fares
(b) Freight
(c) Tourism and catering services
(d) Fines from ticketless travelers


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Question Paper | U.P. PCS(J) Pre 2012 | General Knowledge | Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Recruitment of SJM/ SMM in Allahabad High Court 2014 | Special Judicial Magistrate/ Special Metropolitan Magistrate

Sunday, March 9, 2014

Name of Post: Special Judicial Magistrate/ Special Metropolitan Magistrate
No. of Posts: Total- 03
[Allahabad-1, Ghaziabad-1, Kanpur Nagar-1]

Term of Office: Four years from the date of assumption of his charge or attaining the age of 70 years whichever is earlier

Eligibility: A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Special Judicial Magistrate unless he-
(a) holds or has held any post under the Government; and
(b) possesses the degree of law or otherwise is well experienced in relation to legal affairs to the satisfaction of the High Court.

How to Apply: All the applicants may submit their applications to the District Judge of the district concerned, who shall after making proper scrutiny shall forward the same to the Hon'ble Court along with his remarks without any delay for consideration of the Hon'ble Court.

For more details and format of Application Form, visit the official website of Allahabad High Court or Click Here-

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Call Letter | Gujarad District Judge Cadre Exam 2013

High Court of Gujarat has uploaded the call letters of eligible candidates for the Interview/ Oral Examination of Gujarat District Judge Cadre Exam 2013.

The Interview/ Oral Examination of Gujarat District Judge Cadre Exam 2013 are scheduled to be held on 12th to 14th March, 2014. Eligible candidates may download their Call Letters from the official website of the High Court of Gujarat.

For the Call Letters and the List of documents to be brought at time of Oral Interview, visit the link below-
http://gujarathighcourt.nic.in/DJ_25_ALL_CL_23368.pdf 

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Result | MP Civil Judge Class-2 (Entry Level) Main Exam 2013

High Court of Madhya Pradesh has declared the result of Main Written Examination of Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge Class-2 (Entry Level) Exam 2013.

Total 40 candidates have declared qualified for Interview on the basis of result of Main Written Examination of Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge Class-2 (Entry Level) Exam 2013. Roll Number wise list of candidates qualified for the Interview is available at the official website of Madhya Pradesh High Court.

For further details and the result of Main Written Examination, visit the link below-

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Result | MP Civil Judge Class-2 (Entry Level) Main Exam 2013SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Odisha Judicial Service Exam 2014 | OJS Exam 2014 | Recruitment Notification

Odisha Public Service Commission will hold Odisha Judicial Service Examination, 2014 for the post of Civil Judge (Junior Division) by direct recruitment, in the State of Odisha through competitive examination.

Name Of Post: Civil Judges in Odisha Judicial Service
Number of Vacancies: Total 39
Pay Scale: Rs.27,700-44,770/

Age Limit: 23-35 years on the 1st August, 2014
Minimum Qualification: Candidate must be a Graduate in Law of a University or Institution recognized by the Government.

How to Apply: Candidates must apply online through the website http://opsconline.gov.in

Last Date for Application: 07.04.2014

For further details and full notification, visit the link below-
 

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Bihar APO (Pre) Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011] | Change in Date of Exam

Bihar Public Service Commission has changed the date for the Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011].

The Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011] was earlier scheduled to be held on 23rd March, 2014. Now the Preliminary Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 42/2011] will be held on 30th March, 2014.

For further details and the full notification of BPSC, visit the link below-

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Answer Key | Bihar APO (Pre) Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 41/2011]

Bihar Public Service Commission has uploaded the model answer keys for the Preliminry Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 41/2011].

The Preliminry Examination of Bihar Assistant Prosecution Officer Competitive Exam [Advt. No.- 41/2011] was held on 1st March, 2014. The Answer Keys for all series are available at the official website of Bihar Public Service Commissio.

For further details, visit the link below-

For the Answer Key of General Knowledge Paper- Booklet Series A, B, C, D, visit the link below-

For the Answer Key of Law Paper- Booklet Series A, B, C, D, visit the link below-

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand PCS(J) Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 181-190

181. Hindu law does not apply to a person who is a Hindu by—
(A) Birth
(B) Conversion
(C) Re-conversion
(D) None of the above

182. Who is a Hindu among following ?
(A) A legitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(B) An illegitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(C) An illegitimate child of Hindu male and Parsi female and who was brought up as a Hindu
(D) All of the above


183. ‘Dayabhaga’ is authored by—
(A) Vijnaneshwara
(B) Yagyavalkya
(C) Jimutavahana
(D) None of the above

184. Vijnaneshwara is a famous commentator of—
(A) Manu Smriti
(B) Narad Smriti
(C) Yagyavalkya Smriti
(D) None of the above

185. In regard to a Hindu marriage, ‘Sapinda relationship’ of any person is counted upto—
(A) Fifth generation in the line of ascent through father only
(B) Third generation in the line of ascent through mother only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

186. Pre-martial relation of a spouse is a statutory ground for—
(A) Judicial separation
(B) Divorce
(C) Nullity of marriage
(D) None of the above

187. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a female child of 13 years of age. The adoption is—
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Void

188. Order of succession under the Hindu Succession Act of a male Hindu dying intestate is as follows—
(A) Agnates, Cognates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(B) Cognates, Agnates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(C) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Agnates, Cognates
(D) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Cognates, Agnates

189. Provisions of Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 corresponds to—
(A) Section 36 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(B) Section 36 of the Indian Divorce Act, 1869
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

190. Consent theory of divorce was introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the year—
(A) 1979
(B) 1976
(C) 1964
(D) 1956


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Question Paper | Uttarakhand PCS(J) Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) (Preliminary) Examination- 2009SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

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