Showing posts with label UPHJS Main 2009 Question Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label UPHJS Main 2009 Question Paper. Show all posts

Monday, May 26, 2014

Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009

HJS Question Papers , UPHJS Main 2009 Question Paper
Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009
Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Main Written) Examination- 2009
General Knowledge

PART- A

1. "Kautilya" was the Prime Minister of which Ruler?

2. "Charak" was the Court Physician of which Ruler?

3. Kalidas lived during the reign of which Ruler?

4. Maharishi Patanjali is regarded expounder of which philosophy?

5. "Ayurveda" owes its origin to which Veda?

6. Who is the author of 'Mahabharata'?

7. Name one of the nine gems in the court of Akbar who was his revenue minister?

8. Which are the two planets of the solar system which have no satellites?

9. Which one of the planets in the solar system is known as "Morning Star"?

10. What is the approximate total surface area of the Earth in Square Kilometers?

11. Which is the world's largest desert?

12. The 44th amendment of the Indian Constitution withdrew which fundamental right?

13. The words "Satyamev Jayate" are borrowed from which religious book?

14. Name any two members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

15. What is the name of the border which seperates Pakistan from Afghanistan?

16. From which Constitution the concept of a 'Five Year Plan' was borrowed into the Indian Constitution?

17. What is the name of the book authored by Shri Jaswant Singh which is in the news presently?

18. Name the Chief minister, who recently died in a Helicopter crash.

19. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

20. From which of the countries Constitution of India adopted fundamental duties?

21. Which paramilitary force of India has been setup to provide security to industrial undertakings owned by the Government?

22. When did Gandhiji launch the Quit India Movement?

23. The name 'Annie Besant' is associated with which society?

24. Which is the largest coffee growing country in the world?

25. Which is the world's largest diamond producing country?

26. What is the time taken by the sunlight to reach the Earth?

27. Hamas a militant organization is fighting against which country?

28. In which Battle Napolean was defeated?

29. Elementary education covers children in which age group?

30. Who was the first to develop the World Wide Web?

31. Who is the first indian to score a triple century in test matches?

32. Which metal is used in making an electric bulb filament?

33. Which special sheet is used for marking the answer of multiple choice questions so that they can be scanned?

34. Walt Disney is famous for which two cartoon characters?

35. The first man to travel in space was the Russian cosmonaut named.

36. The Thomas Cup is associated with which sport for men?

37. Who is the writer of famous book 'Adventures of Sherlock Holmes'?

38. The sphere of the earth where life exists is called.

39. Name two locations where atomic power plants are located in India.

40. Which living bird lays the world's largest egg?

41. Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 started from which district of our country?

42. The Amul Cooperative Dairy is located at which place in the State of Gujrat?

43. Which State of our country is the biggest producer of spices?

44. Which is the oldest mountain in India?

45. Which is the Union Territory most densely populated?

46. Name the scientist who first measured velocity of light.

47. Which Indian became the President of International Court of Justice?

48. International Court of Justice is located at?

49. How many members are there at present in the Security Council of the United Nation Organization?

50. Which is the oldest monarchy in the world?
PART- B

Write a short note in about 50 words on the followings:-
 
51. Alternate Dispute Resolution

52. Mission Chandrayan

53. Darwin's Theory of Evaluation

54. Green House Effect

55. Internet

56. Doha round of talks between nations

57. Global Warming

58. Indus Valley Civilization

59. Planning Commission

60. Magna Carta

61. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

62. Green Revolution

63. Cloning

64. National Emblem

65. India's Missile Programme

66. Swine Flu

67. Organic Farming

68. Hung Parliament

69. Operation Duryodhana

70. Electronic mail (e-mail)
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Saturday, May 24, 2014

Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009

HJS Question Papers , UPHJS Main 2009 Question Paper
Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009
Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Main Written) Examination- 2009
Language

1. Write an essay in English on any of the following topics:-

(a) The crises of India is the crises of character
(b) "Sweet are the usage of adversity" explain and expand
(c) Role of Science in crime detection and crime prevention
(d) Secularism in the Constitution of India

2. Give precis of following passage in English in about 150 words and also give a suitable title-

The individual is the passenger in the chariot of the material body, and intelligence is the driver. Mind is the driving instrument, and the senses are the horses. The self is thus the enjoyer or sufferer in the association of the mind and senses. So, it is understood by great thinkers.

The individual consciousness or the life particle is compared to the passanger because he is the chief occupant and thus enjoyer or the sufferer of the journey. The horses indicate the senses that always drag the chariot of the human body to the object of the senses. Intelligence is compared to the driver because the driver employes necessary discrimination for a successful and comfortable journey. Reins are compared to the mind because they are directly connected to the horses (senses) and are guided by the driver (intelligence). An able driver (intelligence) takes to properly guide the chariot towards the destination by discrimination. In this way the passenger or the soul can reach the desired destination by proper use of all the faculties. On the other hand, if any of the faculties are not controlled and coordinated properly in the hierarchy, sooner or later there may be an accident.

Many spritual traditions of the world, specifically the Vedic tradition of India have proclaimed that consciousness is a distinct reality in nature other than particles and waves. Some modern scientists have also supported this ancient wisdom. For example, Thomas Huxley remarked, "It seems to me pretty plain that there is a third thing, in the universe, to wit, consciousness, which ... I of either." Similar observation is echoed in the words of the renowned physicist, Eugene Wigene Wigner, who stated, "There are two kinds of reality or, existence; the existence of my consciousness and the reality or existence of everything else."

According to Vedanta, human activities are carried out by the will of the conscious life particle, which is then translated through the intelligence and mind to the human body. Mind interacts with body through the brain. The brain is like the central processing unit of a computer where all signals for activities come in and also go out, but it functions according to the will of the programmer. John Eccles suggested phycon as the fundamental unit of the mind and it interacts with the brain through dendrons. Karl Pribram has suggested that psychon is something like a Gabor function, a wave function. However, Vedanta indicates that the life particle lies beyond particle and intelligence is a highly complex interaction and may well lie beyond the scope of modern science.

It will be natural that modern biologists and biochemists should include the study of consciousness in their research works. The field should not be left mainly to the neuroscientists, quantum physicsts, psychologists and philosophers only.

3. Translate the following passage into English-

वकालत शिल्प नहीं वरन एक आजीविका है; एक ऐसा व्यवसाय जिसमें कर्तव्य के प्रति निष्ठां उसका प्रमाण चिह्न है। कर्तव्य पालन के प्रति सत्यनिष्ठा और उद्यम की तत्परता दो ऐसे बाजू हैं जो अधिवक्ता को सफलता के शिखर पर पहुँचने के लिए मार्ग प्रशस्त करते हैं। यदि इन गुणों को छोड़ दिया जाये तो अन्य विशेषताएं अपना ही मार्ग अपनाएंगी। यही कारण है कि विधि-व्यवसाय को एक उत्कृष्ट व्यवसाय माना जाता है। किन्तु इस व्यवसाय की कमजोरियों को हावी होने नहीं दिया जा सकता। यहाँ उस अवतरण को उद्घृत करना लाभप्रद होगा जिसमें शेरसवुड ने इस व्यवसाय के सम्बन्ध में अपना मत व्यक्त किया है-

"कोई अधिवक्ता (वकील), अत्यधिक उत्कृष्ट सत्यनिष्ठा के बिना, क्षणिक आभा के साथ चमक सकता है, किन्तु उसकी यह चमक तुरंत ही एक अँधेरे में छिप जायेगी। विशिष्ट गुणों द्वारा उत्कर्ष तक पहुंचना प्रत्येक व्यक्ति की शक्ति में नहीं होता। कुछ अपवादों को छोड़कर प्रतिष्ठा, सक्षमता और उपयोगिता प्राप्त करना प्रत्येक व्यक्ति की शक्ति में नहीं होता। वे लालच, जिनमें कोई युवक अपने व्यावसायिक जीवन के आरम्भ में अभिभूत रहता है विशेष रूप से उस दशा में यदि वह अपने जीवन यापन (निर्वाह) के लिए उस व्यवसाय पर पूरी तरह निर्भर हो, बहुत अधिक होते है। सत्यनिष्ठा और सम्मान के कठोरतम सिद्धांत ही केवल उसके रक्षक होते हैं। यदि उसे सत्य या ऋजुता (निष्पक्षता) से भटकते या डगमगाते हुए अपना जीवन आरम्भ करने दिया जाए तो वह यह पायेगा कि उसकी बाबत कुछ जानने से पहले ही उसका चरित्र नष्ट हो चुका है। ऐसा निस्संदेह अपूर्णीय रूप से नष्ट नहीं हो जाता बल्कि उसे अपना दृढ आधार बनाने में समर्थ होने के लिए अनेकों वर्ष भी लग जायेंगे। ........."

4. Translate the following passage into Hindi-

The exploration of the new principles are essential in those areas not before explored; more so when the old principles are found to be not responding to the unresolved and unforeseen modern challenges or to have become inapplicable to the new situations or found to be unsound. At the same time, it is not to be lost sight of that in the above institutional task, the Court does not create any new right not known to the constitutional text or history but merely discovers and announces only the existing right so far hidden under the surface on a better understanding of the values of the underlining intent and spirit of the Constitution in the light of a new set of conditions. The resultant corollary would be that the old legal concept and such principles may be swept away by a new concept and under a new set of conditions or a fresh outlook.

The proposition that the provisions of the Constitution must be confined only to the interpretation which the Framers, with the condition and outlook of their time would have placed upon them is not acceptable and is liable to be rejected for more than on reason- firstly, some of the current issues could not have been forseen; secondly, others would not have been discussed and thirdly, still others may be left over as controversial issues, i.e. termed as deferred issues with conflicting intentions. Beyond these reas not easy or possible to decipher as to what were the factors that influenced the mind of the Framers at the time of framing th Constitution when it is juxtaposed to the present time. Thw inevitable truth is that law is not static and immutable but ever increasingly dynamic and grows with the ongoing passage of time.
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Thursday, May 22, 2014

Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009

HJS Question Papers , UPHJS Main 2009 Question Paper
Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009
Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Main Written) Examination- 2009
Law III (Penal, Revenue and Local laws)

1(a). What is a 'murder' and how it is different from culpable homicide not amounting to murder? Mention relevant sections of I.P.C. and case law in support of your answer.

1(b). (i) 'A' was surrounded by x,y,z and four unknown persons, who all were armed with lathi, axe and gandasa. All the aforesaid persons launched an attack on 'A', who sustained fracture of parietal and frontal bones of skull with other numerous injuries which all comulatively could have caused his death and was hospitalized for a month. State the offences, which have been committed by the accused persons.

(ii) 'X', with an intention to murder 'B' hatched a conspiracy with 'Y', purchased a pistol with cartridges and both of them went to the house of 'B' at night, but they were caught by the gatekeeper at the gate itself. What offences, if any, have been committed by them? State reasons in support of the answer.

2(a). (i) 'M' was stopped in the way by five persons 'A', 'B', 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'. All of them started beating 'M'. Sustaining injury 'M' fell down on the ground. While escaping 'Z' took away purse of 'M'. What offence/ offences has/ have been committed by 'A' and 'Z'? Explain with reference to relevant sections of I.P.C.

(ii) A gang of ten persons entered into a house and started looting the property. House owner resisted looting of his property and therefore, while escaping, one of the persons, shot dead the house owner. Explain what offence has been committed by the culprits? What can be the maximum sentence that can be imposed on the accused?

2(b). (i) 'A' removed ornaments from a dead body and kept it with him. What offence has been committed by 'A'?

(ii) 'A', 'B', 'C', 'D' and 'E' broke into a house during night. 'A' and 'B' carried instruments useful for house breaking, 'C' and 'D' carried knives and 'E' a revolver. As 'C' was snatching a gold chain forcibly from an inmate, another inmate 'P' pointed a gun on him. Before 'P' could shoot, 'E' shot him dead. All the intruders escaped with the golden chain and other ornaments. Outside the house a neighbour 'N' attempted to catch hold of 'D' but 'D' killed him by stabbing. What are the offences for these five may be charged? Is it possible to plead the right of private defence with respect to killing of 'P'?

3. Discuss the following problems and state what offence of, if any, accused is guilty in each of the following cases:
(a) 'A' a constable tried to apprehend the accused the latter aimed and fired gun from a very close range at the thigh of the constable thereby causing an injury, which in the opinion of the doctor was sufficient in the ordinay course of nature to cause death. The constable died as a result of injury received by him. Of what offence is the accused guilty? Give reasons.

(b) 'A' is lawfully arrested by 'B' a bailiff. 'A' is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest and kills 'B'.

(c) 'A, 'B' and 'C' are charged under Section 302/34 I.P.C. 'A' had a sharp edged weapon and the other two 'B' and 'C' chased the deceased person. Discuss whether a case under Section 302/34 I.P.C. is made out against 'B' and 'C'? What offence each has committed? What defence is available to 'B' and 'C'?

(d) 'A' entered the house of 'B' with the intention of committing theft. 'B' and other members of his family surrounde and attacked 'A' with lathis. Finding life in danger 'A whipped out a revolver and fired causing the death of 'B'. Is 'A' guilty of murder under Section 302 of I.P.C.?

4(a). Classify and define the "tenure holders" reffering to relevant provisions of U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950?

4(b) State briefly as to which properties vest in the Gaon Sabha referring to the provisions of U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950?

5(a). What are the restrictions under the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950 on transfer by a Bhumidhar. Whether a Bhumidhar can transfer the land to a foreign national?

5(b) What are restrictions on transfer of land by a person belonging to Schedule Castes who has become Bhumidhar with transferable right under Section 131B of the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950 to a person belonging to a Scheduled castes?

6(a). Discuss the effect of U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 vis a vis on the rights of landlord to evict a tenant and the nature of protection given to a tenant.

6(b) Whether in case of a building to which U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 (U.P. Act No. XIII of 1972) applies, it is necessary for the landlord to give notice under Section 106 of Transfer of Property Act for filing a suit for eviction on the grounds specified in Section 20 of U.P. Act No. XIII of 1972?

7(a). A release application filed by a landlord both under Section 21(1)(a) and 21(1)(b) of U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972, was allowed. The landlord occupies the building after demolition and reconstruction. The outgoing tenant applies under Section 24 of the Act exercising his option for re-rntry. Decide the said application taking note of pleas available to the respective parties.

7(b) A landlord in a suit for eviction, recovery of arrears of rent and damages, pleads that monthly rent is Rs. 5,000/-. In reply, the tenant admits the rate of rent at Rs. 5,00/- per month and makes the deposit under Order 15 Rule 5 C.P.C. Accordingly. An application to strike off the defence for non compliance of Order 15 Rule 5 C.P.C. is filed on the ground that the rate of rent is Rs. 5,000/- per month and in support thereof the landlord produces the receipt of the counterfoils signed by the tenant and also produces the record from the Bank and Income Tax Department of the tenant to show that he has paid the rent at the rate of Rs. 5,000/- per month. Decide the dispute.

8(a). What are the measures of control given to the State Government over a municipality under the U.P. Municipalities Act, 1916? Answer referring to relevant provisions of the Act.

8(b) Which member, officer and servant of the municipality are liable to surcharge for the loss, waste and misapplication of any money or property of the municipality and what are conditions for recovery of surcharge and whether in any circumstances such liability can cease?

9(a). What are the functions of the Gram Panchayat enumerated under the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947?

9(b) Discuss the nature of jurisdiction exercised by Nyay Panchayat in criminal cases and civil cases?

10(a). Discuss the Statement of Principles prepared under the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953?

10(b) What is the procedure prescribed under the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 for disposal of the objections on the Statements of Principles?
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Tuesday, May 20, 2014

Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009

HJS Question Papers , UPHJS Main 2009 Question Paper
Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009
Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Main Written) Examination- 2009

Law-II (Procedure and Evidence)

1(a). Oral evidence in all cases must be direct. Explain this rule with illustrations and exceptions referring to relevant sections of the Indian Evidence Act.

1(b). In what manner credit of a witness can be impeached? Refer the section of the Indian Evidence Act in support of your answer.

2(a). How much of an information received from an accused can be proved in a trial against him?

Ram, an accused of an offence of murder stated before a police officer that, "the knife by which I have killed Sohan has been hidden by me in the field, which I can recover". On this information the police officer discovers the said knife from the field, on which human blood is detected. Is the whole statement given by the accused admissible in evidence?
If not, what part or parts are admissible in evidence? Give reasons clearly.

2(b). 'A' a woman whose throat had been cut by some sharped weapon indicated by gesture before her death that 'B' was the person who has cut her throat. Is this statement of 'A' made by gesture admissible in evidence against 'B'?

3(a). How the entries in books of account are proved? Point out the difference, if any, with regard to the admissibility of documentary evidence and mode and method of proof thereof. When and at what stage the aforesaid objections can be raised?

A document is marked as "an Exhibit". Whether question of its admissibility can be raised in appeal for the first time? Refer the relevant case laws on the point.

3(b). 'P' was the wife of 'X'. Two months after the death of 'X', she remarries 'Y'. Five months after the marriage, a son 'Z' is born to 'P'. Who is legally the father of 'Z'? Answer referring to the relevant provisions of Evidence Act.

4. What shall be the effect of following defects in a criminal trial? Explain referring to relevant provisions of Criminal Procedure Code.
(a) The charge is defective.
(b) The prosecution evidence is closed after two or three opportunities leaving few important witnesses unexamined.
(c) Judgment of conviction and sentence delivered in absence of accused.
(d) After closure of defence evidence, certain important prosecution witnesses are summoned for being examined.

5(a). What is the power of Magistrate in regard to the police report furnished under Section 173 of Cr.P.C.? Is the Magistrate competent to disagree with the report? Illustrate with case-laws.

5(b). Explain the power of the Magistrate to issue proclamation and attachment, its extent, scope and limitations with the help of relevant provisions and case-laws.

6. At what stage the power under Section 319 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is to be exercised by the Court? What is the Difference between the powers of the Court under Section 311 Cr.P.C. and Section 319 Cr.P.C.?

7(a). What is Plea Bargaining? What are essential requirements for its acceptance?

One madan Gopal lodges a complaint that his wife Ganga Devi had been defamed by the imputation of unchastity to her. Can Ganga Devi lawfully compound the offence without the consent or against the wishes of Madan Gopal?

7(b). An accused is arrested in a bailable offence and he is released on bail. During trial, he absconds and non-bailable warrants are issued against him. The police arrests him and produces him before the court.

The defence counsel pleads for his release on bail under section 436(1) Cr.P.C., which provided that a person accused of a bailable offence shall be released on bail. Can the Court, in such circumstances, refuse to release him on bail? Give reasons briefly.

8(a). Explain the relevant provisions for recording the satisfaction of a decree as mentioned in the Cr.P.C.

8(b). A decree for recovery of arrears of rent, ejectment etc. is passed against a tenant. When the said decree is put in execution, the judgment debtor comes out with the case that after the passing of the decree, a fresh tenancy was created by the landlord by executing a lease deed and as such he is not liable for eviction. The landlord decree holder denies the execution of any such lease deed. Discuss the tenability of the respective pleas.

9. Write a short note on the followings:-
(a) Section 89 of Civil Procedure Code.
(b) The case of Dhulabhai vs. State of M.P. and others reported in A.I.R. 1969 S.C. 78.
(c) Res-subjudice.
(d) Inter pleader suit.

10(a). What is counter claim? Explain the difference between "counter claim" and "set of". Can a counter claim be filed-
(i) when the right to file written statement has been closed?
(ii) after the close of evidence?

10(b). The plaintiffs filed a suit to recover possession of land belonging to them from defendants who were annual tenants. The court declined to give a decree for possession on the ground that proper notice to quit had not been given and ordered the defendants to pay damages for use and occupation of the land for three years prior to the suit. The plaintiffs brought a fresh suit to recover possession of the lands with mesne profits from the defendants. What are the defences open to the defendants?
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Sunday, May 18, 2014

Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009

HJS Question Papers , UPHJS Main 2009 Question Paper
Question Paper | UPHJS (Main) 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Written) Exam- 2009
Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Main Written) Examination- 2009

Law-I (Substantive Law)

1(a). "A contract without consideration is void but there are some contracts which even though may without consideration are valid". Discuss.

1(b). No third party can sue or be sued in a contract to which he is not a party. Discuss.

2(a). 'A' engaged an Advocate to conduct his case for specified fees. Subsequently 'A' promised to pay an additional remuneration if the case was to succeed. The case succeeds and the Advocate sues 'A' for additional remuneration. What, according to you, will be the result of this suit? Answer by referring to relevant provisions of law.

2(b). 'A' gave some gold to a goldsmith named 'B'. The goldsmith put the gold in his safe and posted a watchman outside the room. In a raid by dacoits on the house of the goldsmith, along with his property A's gold was also taken away by the dacoits. Is 'B' liable to 'A' to pay the value of gold? Answer by referring to relevant provisions of law.

3(a). Briefly state rights and duties of the partners inter se, under the Indian Partnership Act?

3(b). One of the partners of a Partnership Firm had retired from the firm on 1.4.1982. The firm continued carrying on its business. The firm took a loan on 1.3.1985. It was established that the retired partner had neither represented nor permitted himself to be represented that he was the partner in the firm on 1.3.1985. Can he be held liable for the loan taken by the firm on 1.3.1985? Decide in the light of the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act.

4(a). Distinguish between an invitee, a licensee and a trespasser, and discuss the liability of an occupier or an owner of land towards each of them.

4(b). The plaintiff, a food grain merchant enjoying good reputation, had incurred ill will of a food inspector who falsely implicated him in a case under Section 7 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The plaintiff was arrested and detained for seven days before being put on trial in the court of Chief Judicial Magistrate who acquitted him. In the plaintiff's suit for damages, the State of Punjab as well as the inspector pleaded that since the prosecution was not malafide and as the State was not liable for the act of the food inspector, the suit must fail.
Whether, the State would be vicariously liable for the acts of the food inspector?

5(a). What is the distinction between a mortgage, a hypothecation and a pledge?

5(b). Mr. Borrower hypothecates his stock in trade to the State Bank. In a suit by Mr. Creditor against Mr. Borrower for recovery of a money claim, Mr. Creditor obtains a decree. He attaches Mr. Borrower's stock in trade in execution of the decree. Discuss the rights of the State Bank and Mr. Creditor over the stock in trade.

6(a). State Government makes registration of all marriages solemnized under the Hindu Marriages Act, 1955 compulsory. Non-registration under the rules renders the marriage void and off-spring illegitimate. 'M' and 'N' have married according to Hindu Marriages Act but the marriage is not registered under these rules.
A son 'X' born to 'M' and 'N'. Decide the validity of marriage and legitimacy of 'X'.

6(b). A joint Hindu family consists of father and his lone son. The son dies having his young widow 'W'. Father dies and thereafter mother also dies. The mother left four daughters. A dispute arose between young widow 'W' and the four daughters with regard to succession of the property left by the joint family. Determine the share of the respective parties referring to relevant provisions and case-laws.

7(a). What is the procedure for granting divorce under Mohammadan Law? Whether a wife can divorce her husband under Mohammadan Law?

7(b). Discuss the ground for dissolution of Muslim marriage under Dissolution of Marriages Act, 1939 with special reference to the grounds of desertion.

8. Article 21-A of the Constitution of India imposes burden on State to provide free and compulsory education, while Article 51-A places burden entirely on parents. Explain as to which one shall prevail and can be enforced in a court of law. Give reasons with reference to selected authorities.

9. "Pardoning power of the President is not immune from judicial review". Examine the statement with the relevant case-law.

10(a). Explain the doctrine of "Pith and Substance" in relation to distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the State.

10(b). Point pot the contingencies under which the President may promulgate Ordinances. Discuss the limitation on this power.
 
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