Friday, August 01, 2014

Solved Paper | UPHJS (Pre) 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 11-20
 
11. A witness, who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court; evidence so given shall be deemed to be-
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Documentary evidence
(D) Oral evidence

Ans. (D)

12. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under-
(A) Order V Rule 9A C.P.C.
(B) Order V Rule 9 C.P.C.
(C) Order IV Rule 7 C.P.C.
(D) Order VI Rule 6 C.P.C.

Ans. (A)

13. ‘B’ takes a gold ring of ‘A’ out of ‘A’s possession without ‘A’s consent with the intention of keeping it till ‘A’ gives ‘B’ some money for its restoration to ‘A’, ‘B’ is guilty of-
(A) Cheating
(B) Criminal beach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriate of property
(D) Theft

Ans. (D)

14. The Magistrate cannot order investigation by CBI. It was held in:
(A) CBI V. State of Rajasthan (2001) 3 SCC 333
(B) Secy. Minor Irrigation & Rural Engg. Services, U.P.v. Sahngoo Ram Arya (2002) 5 SCC 521
(C) Union Bank of India V. Prakash P. Hinduja (2003) 6 SCC 195
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A)
 
15. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr.P.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against
(A) Accused offender
(B) A surety
(C) A witness
(D) All the above

Ans. (D)
 
16. Who among the following has made distinction between distributive justice and corrective justice?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) John Stuart Mill
(D) John Austin

Ans. (B)
 
17. As per section 195A of IPC which was insereted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 the offence of threatening any person to give false evidence, is punishable with
(A) Imprisonment up to 7 years or with fine or with both
(B) Imprisonment up to 5 years or with fine or with both
(C) Imprisonment up to 3 years or with fine or with both
(D) Imprisonment up to 1 years or with fine or with both

Ans. (A)
 
18. Two ladies of young age, A & B fight with each other. A was having a blade with which ‘A’ inflicits injury on the face of B leaving a scar on the cheek of B. A is guilty of offence of causing
(A) Grievous hurt
(B) Grievous hurt by rash or negligent act
(C) Simple hurt
(D) Simple hurt by rash or negligent act

Ans. (A)
 
19. Under Section 13 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 which of the following shall fall in the category of unauthorized occupant/trespasser:
(A) A person who occupies the building without consent of landlord
(B) A person who occupies the building without consent of Rent Control and Eviction Officer.
(C) A person who occupies the building without an order of allotment.
(D) None of the above.

Ans. (C)
 
20. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
(A) Section 154
(B) Section 118
(C) Section 32
(D) Section 90A

Ans. (A)
 

DISCLAIMER: The answers provided here are for views purposes only. For any accuracy it should be double checked. Read More... 

Question Paper | Punjab Superior Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam 2012

Punjab Superior Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination 2012

Question Number: 91-100

91. Taxing Statutes should be
(a) Liberally construed
(b) Strictly construed
(c) Purposively construed
(d) None of the above

92. Which is the form of a delegated legislation?
(a) Rule and Order
(b) Directions and Schemes
(c) Bye-Laws
(d) All of the above

93. Rule of Literal Interpretation means
(a) Only grammatical meaning should be assigned
(b) Only dictionary meaning be assigned
(c) Only natural or popular meaning should be assigned
(d) All of the above

94. Specific Relief can be granted
(a) for enforcing individual civil rights
(b) for enforcing penal laws
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

95. Specific Relief Act applies to
(a) Only Immovable Property
(b) Only Moveable Property
(c) Both moveable and immovable property
(d) None of the above

96. The liability of a person in possession, not as owner, to deliver to persons entitled to immediate possession arises
(a) when the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent of trustee of the plaintiff
(b) when it is extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage caused by its loss
(c) when compensation in money is not an adequate relief
(d) all of the above

97. A suit for possession of an Immovable Property under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act can be filed within
(a) 6 months of dispossession
(b) One year of dispossession
(c) Two years of dispossession
(d) Three years of dispossession

98. Relief of rescission is granted in cases
(a) where the contract is void
(b) where the contract is voidable
(c) both void and voidable contracts
(d) neither void nor voidable contracts

99. The grant or refusal of relief of declaration and injunction under the provisions of Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act is
(a) discretionary
(b) mandatory
(c) prohibitory
(d) none of the above

100. Perpetual injunction can be granted under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act
(a) when compensation affords adequate remedy
(b) when there exists standard for ascertaining the actual damages caused
(c) when it is necessary to prevent multiplicity of proceedings
(d) when the defendant is not a trustee of property for the plaintiffs


Question Paper | Haryana Superior Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam 2012

Haryana Superior Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination 2012

Question Number: 91-100

91. The Act comes into the force on the day
(a) It receives the assent of the President or Governor as the case may be
(b) It receives the consent of the President or Governor as the case may be
(c) It is passed by the lower house
(d) It is passed by both the houses after due deliberation

92. The words not defined in the Specific Relief Act shall be understood according to
(a) The Indian Contract Act
(b) The Indian Succession Act
(c) Transfer of Property Act
(d) None of the above

93. Specific Relief Act is the product of
(a) 8th Report of Law Commission of India on SRA of 1877
(b) 9th Report of Law Commission of India on SRA of 1877
(c) 10th Report of Law Commission of India on SRA of 1877
(d) None of the above

94. Burden to prove adverse possession is on
(a) Court
(b) Plaintiff
(c) Defendant
(d) None of the above

95. Section 13 of the Specific Relief Act has no application when the transfer has been effected in respect of a property
(a) in which vendor has no title or has an imperfect title
(b) in which vendor has title
(c) in which vendor has imperfect title
(d) none of the above

96. Mistake contemplated under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act is
(a) Mutual mistake
(b) Mistake in framing of the instrument
(c) bilateral mistake
(d) all of the above

97. Proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act relates to
(a) suits for injunctions
(b) suits for declaration
(c) suits for specific performance
(d) all of the above

98. Within the meaning of Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, the assignee falls
(a) within the meaning of representative in interest or principal
(b) representative of interest only
(c) representative of principal only
(d) none of above

99. What is true of temporary injunction
(a) is permanent between the parties
(b) concludes the right
(c) continues until a certain specific period
(d) can't be granted ex-parte

100. In cases of specific performance of a contract, the rights of the parties are governed by the principles of
(a) law
(b) equity
(c) equity and law
(d) neither equity and nor law