Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Monday, September 29, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 91-100

91. Conditions and warranties in a contract may be
(A) Express
(B) Implied
(C) Express or implied
(D) None of the above
 
92. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘right to sleep’ is a fundamental right?
(A) Naaz Foundation Case
(B) In Re Ramlila Maiden Case
(C) Anna Hazare Case
(D) None of the above

93. Which of the fundamental rights was amended by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 which got the President’s assent on 12th January, 2012?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Life
(D) None of the above

94. Transplantation of Human Organ (Amendment) Act, 2011 increased the publisher for illegal human organ and tissue transplantation to.
(A) 7 years
(B) 10 years
(C) Life Imprisonment
(D) None of the above

95. The Supreme Court has recently rule that OBC Students will qualify for admissions under the reserved category if they have……………percent less marks than the eligibility level fixed for the general category students.
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 15

96. The supreme court has held that prostitutes are entitled to a life of dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. The statement is.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly Correct
(D) None of the above

97. In case of customary rights, easements are……………..rights annexed to the place in general.
(A) Private
(B) Public
(C) Customary
(D) None of the above

98. The word ‘easement’ is defined in section………….of the Indian Easements Act, 1882
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 4
(D) Section 5

99. Which of the following sections of the Indian Easements Act, defines the term ‘customary easement’?
(A) Section 15
(B) Section 18
(C) Section 22
(D) Section 26

100. Expert opinion is relevant under section………………of the Indian Evidence Act.
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 43
(C) Section 44
(D) Section 45
 

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Sunday, September 28, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 81-90

81. Which of the following Muslim Laws applies in India?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
(B) Muslim Law of Evidence
(C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986

82. Which of the following animals has the power of regeneration?
(A) Frog
(B) Lizard
(C) Tortoise
(D) Snake

83. Which section of Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 mandates that after declaration of any area as development area under section 3 of the Act no development of land shall be undertaken or carried out unless permission for such development has been obtained in writing from the Vice Chairman.
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 41
(D) Section 15

84. What maximum penalty can be imposed in a non-continuing offence if any development has been made after declaration of the area as development area under section 3 of the Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 without permission of Vice Chairman of the Authority?
(A) Rs. Thirty Thousand
(B) Rs. One Lac
(C) Rs. Fifty Thousand
(D) None of the above

85. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the enforcement of Uniform Civil Code.
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 48
(D) 44

86. Which Article of the Constitution provide benefit to minority institutions.
(A) 19
(B) 16
(C) 15
(D) 30

87. Which of the following cases is known as the ‘Nirbhaya Case’?
(A) Mumbai rape case
(B) Delhi gang rape
(C) Mathura rape case
(D) None of the above

88. According to the new companies act, 2013, what is the minimum number of person/s required to from a Private Limited Company ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

89. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 which came into force in November, 2012 ‘child’ means a boy or girl below the age of.
(A) 15 years
(B) 16 years
(C) 17 years
(D) 18 years

90. In which of the following recent cases did the constitution bench of the Supreme Court hold that Indian Courts have no jurisdiction over arbitral awards seated outside of India?
(A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading
(B) Bharat Aluminium Co. V Kaiser Aluminium Technical Service
(C) Standard Chartered Bank V. HSBC
(D) None of the above

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 81-85

81. For an action in torts-
(A) some legal right should be damaged
(B) some moral right should be damaged
(C) some rights should be damaged
(D) None of these.

82. The difference between the maxims injuria sine damno and Damnum sine injuria lies in the fact that-
(A) the formar contemplates no wrong while the latter has damage with wrongs
(B) the formar contemplates moral wrongs while the latter contemplates wrongs
(C) the formar contemplates legal wrong with remedy while the latter moral wrongs without damages
(D) the latter contemplates moral wrongs with damage but not vice versa

83. 'X' was working at a place over which a crane swung carrying heavy stones. Both 'X' and his employer knew that the crane so swung and recognized the possibility of danger if a stone fell from the crane. No warning was given 'X' of the swinging time of the crane whenever this took place. Once a heavy stone fell from the swinging crane and injured 'X'. In a claim for torts, the employer pleaded that there was no liability on the basis of the principle volenti non fit injuria. This plea-
(A) is not correct as knowledge of the risk is not the same thing as acceptance of the risk
(B) is correct as 'X' knew the risk
(C) is for the Judge to consider at his discretion
(D) is quite novel without an authoritative decision for or against

84. 'A' had only one good eye. He was employed by 'B' on a work in which some risk to the eye by injury was clear. However, the risk was not so great as to necessitate supply of protective goggles to the workmen with both eyes good. 'B' knew the fact that 'A' had only one good eye but did not supply protective goggles to 'A' because no other workman was supplied with protective goggles. During the course of employment, the good eye of 'A' was injured. 'A' brought an action in tort.
(A) 'A' cannot succeed as he took up the work well knowing that risk injury to the good eye existed
(B) 'B' was liable because although he knew that 'A' had only one good eye and its loss would mean blindness, yet, he did not supply 'A' with protective goggles
(C) Both 'B' and 'A' are at fault and the law treats them as equal
(D) None of these

85. The element of malice-
(A) is not essential in any tort
(B) is essential in all torts
(C) is essential in the torts of defamation, malicious prosecution, willful and malicious damage to property, maintenance and slander of life
(D) is essential in the torts of defamation and malicious prosecution only

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Interview Schedule | U.P. Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2013

Saturday, September 27, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission has announced the Schedule of Interviews for Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Examination 2013.

Interviews of the candidates qualified in the Main Examination of Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Exam 2013, will be held from 15th October, 2014 to 21st October, 2014. Roll Number wise Interview Schedule is available at the official website of Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission.

For further details & Roll Number wise Interview Schedule, visit the link below-
http://uppsc.up.nic.in/View_Notices.aspx?ID=news&N=229 

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Interview Date | Rajasthan Judicial Service Competitive Exam 2013

Friday, September 26, 2014

Rajasthan High Court has announced the date of Interview for the qualified candidates of Rajasthan Judicial Service Competitive (Main) Examination 2013.

The Interview of the candidates, who have qualified to face the interview as per the result of the Main Examination for recruitment in Civil Judge Cadre, 2013, shall be held between 10th November, 2014 to 25th November, 2014.

For further details, visit the link below-
http://hcraj.nic.in/recruitment/notice652-24092014.pdf 

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Select List | Legal Assistants in Gujarat High Court

High Court of Gujarat has declared the Final Select List of Legal Assistants in Gujarat High Court.

Select List of candidates, for recruitment to the post of Legal Assistants on the establishment of the High Court of Gujarat, is available at the official website of the High Court of Gujarat.

For further details and the Select List, visit the link below-
http://gujarathighcourt.nic.in/Select_List_Result_22_9_14.pdf 

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 71-80

71. ‘A’ offers ‘B’ lavish entertainment if ‘B’ paints his portrait.
(A) Offer is valid since the work is specified
(B) Offer is valid since the terms and identifiable
(C) Offer is not valid since the terms and vague
(D) None of the above

72. The definition of movable property under section 22 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 excludes………………………
(A) Land
(B) Things attached to the earth
(C) Things permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth
(D) All of the above

73. Object of serving Iddat period if……………
(A) To ascertain whether the woman is pregnant or not.
(B) To ascertain the paternity of the child
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

74. Minimum period for Muta Marriage is
(A) One month
(B) One year
(C) Three month
(D) No minimum period

75. Adoption is unknown to
(A) Hindu Law
(B) Muslim Law
(C) Christian Law
(D) None of the above

76. The element of malice
(A) Is essential in all torts
(B) Is not essential is any tort
(C) Is essential in the torts of defamation and malicious prosecution
(D) None of the above

77. If two suits between same parties involve same subject matter and same question then…………………..suit/s should be stayed.
(A) Former
(B) Subsequent
(C) Both
(D) None of the above

78. Under the provisions of Transfer of Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested interest.
(A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
(C) 12 days after his birth
(D) 18 days after his birth

79. In which of the following conditions the lease can be terminated
(A) Efflux of time
(B) On termination of lessor’s interest or power
(C) On merger
(D) All of the above

80. Who can be a guardian in minor’s marriage in Sunni Law?
(A) Mother in the presence of father
(B) Grand-mother in the presence of father
(C) Maternal uncle in the presence of father
(D) Father

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 71-80

71. What of the following conditions must be fulfilled in order to pass the test of permissible classification under Art. 14?
(A) The classification must be founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from others left out of the group
(B) The differentia must have a rational relation to the object sought to be achieved by the State in question
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

72. Which of the following Article deals with 'Right to Freedom'?
(A) Art. 19
(B) Art. 20
(C) Art. 21, 22
(D) All of the above

73. Art. 16(1) lays down there shall be equal opportunity for citizens in matters relating to 'employment' or 'appointment to any office' under the State. The guarantee in clause (1) will cover-
(A) initial appointments only
(B) termination of employment
(C) matters relating to salary, periodical increments, leave gratuity, pension, age of superannuation etc.
(D) all of the above

74. In which case the Supreme Court held that a law depriving a person of 'personal liberty' has not only to stand the test of Art. 21 but it must stand the test of Art. 19 and Art. 14 of the Constitution?
(A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. Union Government
(B) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union Govt.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

75. Which of the following is not an essential for the application of double jeopardy rule?
(A) the person must be accused of an offence
(B) the proceeding or the prosecution must have taken place before a Court or judicial tribunal
(C) the person must have been prosecuted or punished in the previous proceeding and the offence must be the same for which he was prosecuted or punished in the previous proceeding
(D) all the above are essential for the application of double jeopardy rule

76. Art. 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate by law Fundamental Rights in the application to-
(A) the members of the armed forces
(B) the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
(C) the persons employed in any bureau or other organisation established by the State for purposes of intelligence and persons employed in connection with the tele- communication system set up for purposes of any force, bureau or organisation referred in Art. 33
(D) all of the above

77. The provisions of the Constitution can be amended by-
(A) simple majority
(B) special majority
(C) special majority and ratification by resolution passed by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures
(D) All of the above

78. In which case the Supreme Court has held that the fundamental right may be amended but the basic structure or framework of the Constitution cannot be amended?
(A) Sankari Pd. Vs. Union Govt. case
(B) Golakhnath Vs. State of Punjab case
(C) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala case
 
79. If the property is lent for a fixed time or delivered as security for the repayment of a debt-
(A) the person who lends the property or delivered as security is in mediate possession of it
(B) the person who lends the property or delivered as security is in immediate possession of it
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

80. "Where an innkeeper seizes the goods of his guest, who has failed to pay his bill, there is an acquisition of possession against the will of previous possessor, but it is a rightful taking of possession.... where a thief steals a watch, this is still an acquisition of possession against the will of the true owner, but it is wrongful i.e. not in pursuance of legal right."
This statement was given by-
(A) Salmond
(B) Savigny
(C) Keeten
(D) Friemann

 

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Interview Schedule | H.P. Judicial Service Exam 2014

Thursday, September 25, 2014

Himachal Pradesh Punlic Service Commission has announced the date for Interview for Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service Competitive Examination 2014.

The Main Examination of Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service Competitive Examination 2014 were held from 15th July to 18th July 2014. The Interviews of the candidates who qualified H.P. Judicial Service (Main) Written Exam 2014, will be conducted on 13th October, 2014.

For further details, visit the link below-
http://www.hp.gov.in/hppsc/file.axd?file=2014%2f9%2fPress+Note-++Interview+date+for+the+post+of+H.P.+Judicial+Service+Examination-2014.pdf 

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Result | U.P. Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Mains Exam 2013

Wednesday, September 24, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission has declared the result of the Mains Examination of Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Examination 2013.

The Mains Examination of Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Examination 2013 were held on 27.01.2014 to 29.01.2014. Total 386 candidates have qualified for the Interview. List of candidates who have qualified for Interview in U.P. Judicial Service Civil Judge (J.D.) Mains Exam 2013, is available at the official website of Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission.

For the result of Mains Exam, visit the link below-
http://uppsc.org.in/res/23092014/MUNRES.pdf 

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 61-70

61. Under the doctrine of vicarious liability which one among the following is correct?
(A) Principal is liable for the wrongful act of his agent.
(B) Master is liable for the torts of his servant.
(C) Partner are liable for each other’s wrongful act
(D) All of the above are correct.

62. Transfer of property for the benefit of an unborn person can be made by
(A) Creation of a prior interest in favour of a living person for any period
(B) Vesting the right directly to the unborn.
(C) Creation of a prior interest in favour of a living person till the existence of unborn person.
(D) Either to the unborn or to a living person.

63. Which section of Uttar Pradesh Municipalities Act, 1916 empowers the State Government to dissolve the municipality.
(A) Section 48
(B) Section 31 (A)
(C) Section 30
(D) None of the above

64. Which of the following is/are decree/s?
(A) Order of abatement of a suit
(B) Dismissal of appeal as time barred.
(C) Dismissal of suit for want of evidence.
(D) All of the above

65. Judge is defined as the presiding officer of a civil court under…………..of the code of civil procedure, 1908.
(A) Section 2 (8)
(B) Section 2 (4)
(C) Section 2 (5)
(D) Section 2 (2)

66. Principle of res judicata applies to……………
(A) Suits only
(B) Execution proceedings only
(C) Arbitration proceedings only
(D) Suits as well as execution proceedings

67. Which of the following has been specifically excluded from the definition of complaint under section 2 (d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Protest petition
(B) Joint complaint
(C) Police report
(D) None of the above

68. A Magistrate can issue summons to an accused the appear before a police officer. The statement is
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly correct
(D) None of the above

69. On the death of a sole proprietor, his heirs automatically become the partners of old firm. The statement is
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true
(D) None of the above

70. Which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act bestows every partner with the authority of an agent?
(A) Section 17
(B) Section 18
(C) Section 19
(D) Section 20

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 61-70

61. I am not.....to sell you my house unless you offer a more.....price.
(A) agree, better
(B) prepared, realistic
(C) ready, correct
(D) having, actual

62. Due to.....rainfall this year, there will be.....cut in water supply.
(A) scanty, substantial
(B) meager, least
(C) sufficient, no
(D) surplus, abundant

63. In his....., he followed the.....course.
(A) agony, funny
(B) ignorance, wrong
(C) hurry, diversified
(D) predicament, proper

64. Though he is reputed for his technical....., his books were sadly.....of the work of others as he lacked originality.
(A) advice, unconscious
(B) skill, independent
(C) knowledge, ignorant
(D) expertise, derivative

65. In.....of International matters, there is always an element of risk in.....one might do.
(A) view, whichever
(B) many, doing
(C) defence, wrong
(D) case, whatever

66. Santosh looked very happy and.....when he heard that his proposed scheme was.....by the committee.
(A) energetic, rejected
(B) elated, accepted
(C) satisfied, stalled
(D) disconsolate, approved

67. We must prevent endangered wild animal species from becoming.....in order that our future generation may.....the great diversity of animal life.
(A) rare, escape
(B) volatile, notice
(C) powerful, protect
(D) extinct, enjoy

68. India is a Sovereign because-
(A) the Constitution recognises the legal supermacy of another country over India
(B) the Constitution does not recognise the legal supermacy of another country over India
(C) India is free from any type of external control
(D) both (B) and (C)

69. The Political Sovereignty lies with the-
(A) Parliament of India
(B) People of India
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) The Constitution of India

70. The term 'State' as defined in Art. 12 of the Constitution includes-
(A) Govt. and Parliament of India
(B) Govt. and the Legislature of each of the States
(C) All local and other authority with the territory of or under the control of the Govt. of India
(D) All the above

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UPHJS 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service Limited Competitive Examination Amongst Civil Judge (Senior Division) | Recruitment Notification

Monday, September 22, 2014

High Court of Judicature at Allahabad has notified the Limited Competitive Examination Amongst Civil Judge (Senior Division) - Recruitment to the UPHJS-2014.

No. of Posts: 22

Eligibility: Qualifying service of 5 years as Civil Judge (Senior Division) on the last date of application (07.10.2014)

Last Date: 07.10.2014

For the instructions, visit the link below-
http://www.allahabadhighcourt.in/recruit/hjs2014l/instruction-LCE2014.pdf

For Bank Challan Form, visit the link below-
http://www.allahabadhighcourt.in/recruit/hjs2014l/challan-LCE2014.pdf

For Online Application, visit the link below-
http://www.allahabadhighcourt.in/recruit/hjs2014l/hjsl-reg-input.jsp 

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 51-60

51. Section 12 (1) (a) of the Hindu Marriage Act is related to
(A) Impotency
(B) Mental disorder
(C) Fraud
(D) None of the above

52. Suppressio veri by a woman who was pregnant at the time of marriage is a ground for annulling the marriage as.
(A) Voidable
(B) Void
(C) Irregular
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

53. If, during the period of judicial sepration, either spouse indulges in adultery, does it furnish a ground for divorce?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Not a ground
(D) None of the above

54. Before which authority Appeal will lie under section 160 of U.P. Municipalties Act, 1916 in a case tax assessed upon the annual value of building or land or both.
(A) State Government
(B) Prescribed Authority
(C) District Magistrate
(D) None of the above

55. Who becomes the guardian of illegitimate children on the mother’s death.
(A) Uncle
(B) Grandfather
(C) Father
(D) None of the above

56. Choose the correct form of the word from the alternative given below.
(A) Erroniously
(B) Erroneusly
(C) Erroneously
(D) Erroniously

57. Choose the correct form of the word from the alternative given below
(A) Envelope
(B) Certan
(C) Uncertain
(D) Conclud

58. What is the meaning of the word “Vituperation”.
(A) Questionable
(B) Resistance
(C) Absurdity
(D) Bitter criticism

59. What is the meaning of the word “Fallacy”.
(A) Flaw
(B) Cynic
(C) Blunder
(D) Truth

60. What is the meaning of the word “Clandestine”.
(A) Secluded
(B) Pungent
(C) Gloomy
(D) Secret

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 51-60

51. Yuan is the currency of-
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar

52. Massive deforestation causes-
(A) soil erosion
(B) floods
(C) famine
(D) None of these

53. Dakshin Gangotri is a/ an-
(A) second source of the river Ganga
(B) unmanned station located in Antarctica for continuous weather and scientific monitorings
(C) river- valley project in Andhra Pradesh
(D) island in the Indian Ocean near Antarctica

54. The continent that has occupied the largest area in the equatorial belt is-
(A) South America
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) Asia

55. Which one of the following has the highest fuel value?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Charcoal
(C) Natural Gas
(D) Gasoline

56. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through-
I. Blood
II. Lungs
III. Tissue

The correct sequence of transportation is-
(A) I, II, III
(B) III, I, II
(C) II, I, III
(D) I, III, II

Directions (Q. 57 to 67): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces in the given sentences. Below each sentence there are four pair of words denoted by numbers (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete:

57. The Deputy Manager.....to resign because all his proposals were.....down by his superiors.
(A) planned, thrown
(B) gave, held
(C) began, kept
(D) threatened, turned

58. The counter clerk was very busy and.....not pay.....to Sameer's request.
(A) can, help
(B) could, cooperation
(C) had, cash
(D) did, attention

59. She was.....because all her palm had gone......
(A) happy, selected
(B) dejected, splendidly
(C) distraught, awry
(D) frustrated, magnificently

60. Ravi.....a bit.....he was not invited by his friend to attend the party.
(A) annoyed, before
(B) angered, since
(C) expressed, than
(D) grumbled, when

 

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Notification for Chhattisgarh Civil Judge (Mains) Exam 2014

Sunday, September 21, 2014

Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission

Civil Judge Examination- 2014

Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission has issued the advertisement for the recruitment of Civil Judges in Chhattisgarh for which Online Preliminary Examination were held on 22.06.2014. The result of the Preliminary Examination has already been declared and the Commission has issued the notification for the Mains Exam for the eligible candidates.

Date for Online Application for Mains Exam: 10.09.2014- 09.10.2014
Expected Date for Mains Exam: 09.11.2014

For further details, visit the link below-
http://www.psc.cg.gov.in/pdf/NOTIFICATIONS/CJmains2014.PDF 

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HCS (Judicial Branch) Exam 2014 | New Recruitment Notification

Saturday, September 20, 2014

Haryana Public Service Commission
[Advertisement No. 7 / 2014]

H.C.S (Judicial Branch) Examination 2014

The Haryana Public Service Commission invites applications from eligible candidates for the posts of Civil Judge (Junior Division) in the Haryana Civil Service (Judicial Branch).

Name of Post: Civil Judge (Junior Division)
No. of Posts: 119 posts
Pay-Scale: Rs. 27,700 - 44,770

Age Limit: Candidate should not be less than 21 years and not more than 42 years as on 18.10.2014.
Eligibility: No person shall be eligible to be appointed a Civil Judge (Junior Division) unless he holds a degree of Bachelor of Laws from a University established by the law and approved/recognized by the Bar Council of India.

Online Last Date: 18.10.2014

For more details visit the official website of Haryana Public Service Commission at-

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Recruitment | Fourteen Assistant Legal Adviser in Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice | UPSC

Union Public Service Commission has notified the following legal vacancy:

Advertisement No.: 15/2014
Vacancy No.: 14091507213

Name of Post: Assistant Legal Adviser
No. of Posts: 14
Pay-Scale: Rs.15,600- 39,100
Age limit: Not exceeding 40 years
 
Qualifications: A person shall not be eligible for appointment by direct recruitment to a duty post in Grade IV, unless he holds a Degree in Law of a recognized University or LLB and unless he has been a member of a State Judicial Service for a period of not less than seven years or has held a superior post in the legal department of a State for a period of not less than seven years or a Central Government servant who has had experience in legal affairs for not less than seven years or possesses a Master's Degree in Law and has had teaching or research experience in Law for not less than five years or is a qualified legal practitioner of not less than 30 years of age. Note I: The 'qualified legal practitioner' in relation to appointment to a duty post in Grade IV by direct recruitment means an advocate or a pleader who has practiced as such for at least seven years or an attorney of the High Court of Bombay or Calcutta who has practiced as such for at least five years or has practiced as such attorney and an advocate for a total period of at least five years. Note II: A superior post in the Legal Department of a State means that he should have experience in the State Government in a post which is not clerical and which requires qualification of Degree in Law for appointment to it

Last Date for Online Application: 02.10.2014
 
For further details, visit the link below- 

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Recruitment | One Deputy Government Advocate in Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice | UPSC

Union Public Service Commission has notified the following legal vacancy:

Advertisement No.: 15/2014
Vacancy No.: 14091506213

Name of Post: Deputy Government Advocate
No. of Posts: 01
Pay-Scale: Rs. 15,600- 39,100
Age limit: 50 years

Qualifications: A person shall not be eligible for appointment by direct recruitment to a duty post in Grade III, unless he holds a Degree in Law of a recognized University or LLB and unless he has been a member of a State Judicial Service for a period of not less than ten years or has held a superior post in the legal department of a State for a period of not less than ten years or a Central Government servant who has had experience in legal affairs for not less than ten years or possesses a Master's Degree in Law and has had teaching or research experience in Law for not less than eight years or is a qualified legal practitioner of not less than 35 years of age. Note I: The 'qualified legal practitioner' in relation to appointment to a duty post in Grade III by direct recruitment means an advocate or a pleader who has practiced as such for at least ten years or an attorney of the High Court of Bombay or Calcutta who has practiced as such for at least eight years or has practiced as such attorney and an advocate for a total period of at least eight years.

Last Date for Online Application: 02.10.2014

For further details, visit the link below-
http://www.upsc.gov.in/recruitment/advt/2014/advt.%20no.%2015%20of%202014.pdf 

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Recruitment | Two Additional Government Advocate in Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice | UPSC

Union Public Service Commission has notified the following legal vacancy:

Advertisement No.: 15/2014
Vacancy No.: 14091505213

Name of Post: Additional Government Advocate
No. of Posts: 02
Pay-Scale: Rs. 37,400- 67,000
Age limit: 50 years
 
Qualifications: A person shall not be eligible for appointment by direct recruitment to a duty post in Grade II, unless he holds a Degree in Law of a recognized University or LLB and unless he has been a member of a State Judicial Service for a period of not less than thirteen years or has held a superior post in the legal department of a State for a period of not less than thirteen years or a Central Government servant who has had experience in legal affairs for not less than thirteen years or is a qualified legal practitioner. Note I: The 'qualified legal practitioner' in relation to appointment to a duty post in Grade II by direct recruitment means an advocate or a pleader who has practiced as such for at least thirteen
years, or an attorney of the High Court of Bombay or Calcutta who has practiced as such attorney and an advocate for a total period of at least eleven years. Note II: The candidate should be eligible for enrollment as an advocate in the Supreme Court under Supreme Court Rules, 1950 as amended from time to time and for registration as an Advocate on Record of that Court under the said rules. Note III: A superior post in the Legal Department of a State means that he should have experience in the State Government in a post which is not clerical and which requires qualification of Degree in Law for appointment to it.

Last Date for Online Application: 02.10.2014
 

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 41-50

41. What is the minimum percentage of total number of tenure holders on whose representation the collector can provide chak road or chak gul after notification under sub section (1) of section 52 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holding Act, 1953.
(A) Twenty percent
(B) Fifty percent
(C) Ten percent
(D) None of the above

42. Which full bench decision of this court has held Deputy Director of Consolidation has no power of review his judgement.
(A) Ram Kumar V. State of U.P. & others 2005 (99) RD 823
(B) Smt Guddi V. State of U.P. & others 1997 2 UPLBEC 872
(C) Smt. Shiv Raji and others v. Deputy Director of Consolidation and others 1997 (88) RD 562
(D) Daya Ram Singh v. State of U.P. 2007 (3) ESC 1760

43. Surcharge shall ceases to exist or can not be recovered.
(A) After completion of five years from the occurrence of such loss, waste or misapplication.
(B) After completion of ten years from the date on which the peson liable ceases to hold his office.
(C) After expiration of ten years from the occurrence of such loss, waster or ceases to hold his office, whichever is later.
(D) No limitation

44. Which section of the U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 provides the power of execution of decree or order passed by a Nayay- Panchayat.
(A) Section 90
(B) Section 85
(C) Section 93
(D) None of the above

45. What maximum sentence a Nayay Panchayat or any member thereof can award for its contempt.
(A) Imprisonment for not more than ten days
(B) Fine not exceeding Rs. 100
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Fine not exceeding ten rupees

46. Under which section of U.P. Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 members and servants of Gram Panchayat are deemed to be public servant with in the meaning of section 21 of the Indian Penal Code.
(A) Section 27
(B) Section 42
(C) Section 43
(D) Section 28

47. Under Rule 32 of U.P. Panchayat Raj Act Rules, 1947 the notice of meeting of Gaon Sabha shall be given at least.
(A) 5 days before the date of meeting
(B) 7 days before the date of meeting
(C) Two weeks before the date of meeting
(D) Fifteen days before the date of meeting

48. The preamble to the Constitution of India was first amended vide.
(A) Constitution 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) Constitution 24th Amendment Act, 1971
(C) Constitution 75th Amendment Act, 1993
(D) Constitution 77th Amendment Act, 1995

49. The Eight Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for
(A) Panchayat Raj
(B) Anti Defection
(C) Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
(D) Official Languages

50. Puisne judge of a Supreme Court means.
(A) A judge of inferior scale
(B) An additional judge
(C) An associate judge
(D) An adhoc judge

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 41-50

41. Sarkaria Commission was set up to-
(A) make necessary investigations and suggestions regarding the problem of Punjab
(B) review the Centre- State relations
(C) investigate the riots that took place in Delhi in 1984
(D) investigate the assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi

42. Rajya Sabha is considered to be a permanant House because-
(A) its members never retire
(B) the House is never dissolved
(C) only one third of its members retire after every two years
(D) none of these

43. By how many States must a Constitution Bill be passed before it is given assent by the President of India?
(A) All
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) None of these

44. Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy along with specific instructions to-
(A) balkanise the Indian sub- continent
(B) keep India united if possible
(C) accept Jinnah's demand for Pakistan
(D) persuade the Congress to accept partition

45. The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by the-
(A) Greeks
(B) Shakas
(C) Parthians
(D) Mughals

46. The Mongols under Gengis Khan invaded India during the reign of-
(A) Balban
(B) Feroze Tughlaq
(C) Iltutmish
(D) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

47. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a Constitution for India?
(A) Swaraj Party in 1934
(B) Congress Party in 1936
(C) Muslim League in 1942
(D) All Parties Conference in 1946

48. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from-
(A) West Bengal
(B) the Bombay Presidency
(C) the then Madhya Bharat
(D) Punjab

49. At the time of India's Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was-
(A) a member of Congress Working Committee
(B) not a member of the Congress
(C) the President of the Congress
(D) the General Secretary of the Congress

50. The most short- lived of all of Britain's constitutional experiments in India was the-
(A) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(C) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(D) Government of India Act of 1919

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Thursday, September 18, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 31-40

31. According to the amendment to the Transfer of Property Act, 2002 the period, with in the principle of section 106 of the Act shall commence from;
(A) Date of receipt of notice
(B) Date of issue of notice
(C) Date of summoning of notice
(D) 15 days from the expiry of notice.

32. Section 497 IPC, which punishes only a male participant in the offence of adultery is intra vires, in view of which provisions of the constitution of India.
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15 (3)
(C) Article 16 (4)
(D) Article 21
 
33. The period of limitation can not be extended under section 5 of the limitation Act in the following proceeding.
(A) An appeal filed under sub-section (3) of section 331 of the U.P. Zamindari abolition and land reforms act, 1950.
(B) Revision filed under section 333 of the U.P. Zamindari abolition and land reforms act, 1950.
(C) Application filed under sub-section (4) of section 198 of the U.P. Zamindari abolition and land reforms act, 1950.
(D) None of the above

34. Every Transfer made in contravention of the U.P. Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act 1950 shall be.
(A) Invalid
(B) Valid
(C) Void
(D) None of the above

35. What is the maximum limit of holding for which benefit under section 122 B (4f) can be extended (inclusive of the land earlier held by a member of scheduled caste or scheduled tribes)
(A) 3.125 acres
(B) 3.025 acres
(C) 3.250 acres
(D) None of the above

36. After how many years a bhumidhar with non transferable right acquires the right to be recorded as bhumidhar with transferable right.
(A) Five years
(B) Fifteen years
(C) Seven years
(D) Ten years

37. Who is entitled to take over the land after extinction of right of a Bhumidhar.
(A) A trust greated for charitable purpose
(B) Educational Institutions
(C) Land Management Committee
(D) None of the above

38. Order passed under sub-section (3) of Section 8 of U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 is-
(A) Revisable
(B) Appealable
(C) Neither Appelable nor Revisable
(D) Final

39. Which Section of U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act Provides correction of clerical or arithmetical errors.
(A) Section 41 A
(B) Section 44 A
(C) Section 42 A
(D) None of the above

40. What is the limitation provided under section 52 of the U.P. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 for moving representation by the tenure holders for Chak road and chak gul after notification issued under sub-section (1) of section 52 of the Act.
(A) 90 days
(B) 30 days
(C) Six month
(D) None of the above

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 31-40

31. Which one among the following States of India has the lowest density of population?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Meghaiaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Sikkim

32. Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular indignation that led to the massacre by the British at Jallianwala Bagh?
(A) The Arms Act
(B) The Public Safety Act
(C) The Rowlatt Act
(D) The Vernacular Act

33. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
(A) Hukum Singh
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) U.N. Dhebar

34. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(A) Environmental Protection
(B) Olympic Games
(C) Journalism
(D) Civil Aviation

35. In which one of the following districts, large reserves of diamond- bearing kimberlite have been discovered in the recent past?
(A) Hoshangabad
(B) Raipur
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Warangal

36. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament seperately, by special majority?
(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill
(D) Constitution Amendment Bill

37. As per the Human Development Index given by the UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
(A) India-Sri Lanka-Pakistan-Maldives
(B) Maldives-Sri Lanka-India-Pakistan
(C) Sri Lanka-Maldives-India-Pakistan
(D) Maldives-India-Pakistan-Sri Lanka

38. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) About one-third of the area of the country records more than 750 mm of annual rainfall
(B) The dominant source of irrigation in the country is wells
(C) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in the northern plains of the country
(D) The mountain areas account for about 30 percent of the surface area of the country

39. The President of India is elected indirectly by the electoral college consisting of the elected members of-
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
(D) Lok sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative assemblies of the States

40. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains-
(A) States and Union Territories
(B) Salaries of the President, Governors of States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc.
(C) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
(D) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Tuesday, September 16, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 21-30

21. Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under section 34 of Evidence Act
(A) If they by themselves create a liability
(B) If they by themselves do not create a liability
(C) Irrespective of whether they themselves create a liability or not
(D) Either (a) or (b)

22. Under Section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible
(A) Must relate to the cause of his own death
(B) May relate to the cause of someone else’ death.
(C) May relate to the cause of his own death or someone else’ death.
(D) None of the above

23. Which amendment act of the constitution reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
(A) Sixtieth Amendment 1988
(B) Sixty-First Amendment 1989
(C) Sixty-Second Amendment 1990
(D) Sixty-Third Amendment 1990

24. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court struck down that legislators cannot be disqualified on his conviction in a criminal case if he/she files an appeal in the appropriate court:
(A) Golaknath V. State of Punjab
(B) Keshvananda Bharti Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Sankari Prasad Vs. UOI
(D) Lily Thomas Vs. Union Bank of India

25. ‘Doctrine of unjust enrichment' was laid down by the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?
(A) Sarla Mudgal V. Union of India
(B) Mafatlal Industries Ltd. Vs. Union of India
(C) S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India
(D) Unni Krishnan Vs. State of A.P.

26. What is the maximum period within which landlord is required to give notice to the District Magistrate regarding the filing of vacancy under section 15 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972
(A) Two weeks
(B) Seven days
(C) Thirty days
(D) None of the above

27. Parties to the suit can compromise in a suit
(A) Under order XXIII, Rule 3A of CPC
(B) Under order XXIII, Rule 3 of CPC
(C) Under order XXIII, Rule 1 of CPC
(D) Under order XXIII, Rule 4 of CPC

28. The chapter that deals with gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(A) Applies to Mohammadan gift also
(B) Does not apply to Mohammadan gift
(C) Applies to all caste, creed, etc.
(D) Applies to Parsi gift only.

29. The gift of future property is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Conditionally void

30. A notice under section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 can be waived:
(A) By express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given
(B) By implied consent of the person to whom it is given.
(C) By express consent of the person to whom it is given.
(D) By notice from either party.

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 21-30
 
21. Which two countries follow China and India in the decreasing order of their populations?
(A) Brazil and the US
(B) The US and Indonesia
(C) Canada and Malaysia
(D) Russia and Nigeria

22. Which among the Indian languages one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi -
(A) Telgu
(B) Tamil
(C) Bengali
(D) Malayalam

23. During the time of which Mughal emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India-
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shah Jahan
(D) Aurangzeb

24. In Chhattisgarh, which of the following minerals are found in natural form?
I. Bauxite
II. Dolomite
III. Iron-ore
IV. Tin

Codes:
(A) Only I,II and III
(B) Only I and III
(C) Only II and IV
(D) I,II,III and IV

25. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?
(A) Police Reforms
(B) Tax Reforms
(C) Reforms in Technical Education
(D) Administrative Reforms

26. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya

27. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket-
I. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its Oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space.
II. A rocket carries its own supply of Oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) both I and II
(D) neither I nor II

28. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
(A) Dye laser
(B) Gas laser
(C) Semiconductor laser
(D) Excimer laser

29. How do most insects respire?
(A) through skin
(B) through gills
(C) by lungs
(D) by tracheal system

30. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system?
(A) Trypsin
(B) Gastrin
(C) Ptyalin
(D) Pepsin

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Tripura Judicial Service Grade-I Exam 2014 | Recruitment

Sunday, September 14, 2014

High Court of Tripura invites applications from eligible candidates for Grade-I of Tripura Judicial Service Examination 2014.

Name of Post: Grade-I of Tripura Judicial Service
No. of Posts: 04
Pay-Scale: Rs. 51550-63070

Age Limit: 35-45 years
Minimum Qualifications: Advocates with atleast 07 years practice

Last Date: 31.10.2014

For further details of recruitment advertisement and the format of Application Form, visit the link below-

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Judicial Indexer in Orissa High Court | Recruitment Notification

Orissa High Court invites applications in the prescribed format for the following post:

Name of Post: Judicial Indexer
No. of Posts: 01 (One)
Pay-Scale: Rs. 9300- 34800

Age Limit: 18- 35 years (as on 01.01.2014)
Minimum Qualifications: Law Graduates Staff Members of the Court and the Advocates having three years of practice at Bar.

Last Date: 13.10.2014

For further details and Application Form, visit the link below-
 

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 11-20

11. A witness, who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court; evidence so given shall be deemed to be-
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Documentary evidence
(D) Oral evidence

12. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under-
(A) Order V Rule 9A C.P.C.
(B) Order V Rule 9 C.P.C.
(C) Order IV Rule 7 C.P.C.
(D) Order VI Rule 6 C.P.C.

13. ‘B’ takes a gold ring of ‘A’ out of ‘A’s possession without ‘A’s consent with the intention of keeping it till ‘A’ gives ‘B’ some money for its restoration to ‘A’, ‘B’ is guilty of-
(A) Cheating
(B) Criminal beach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriate of property
(D) Theft

14. The Magistrate cannot order investigation by CBI. It was held in:
(A) CBI V. State of Rajasthan (2001) 3 SCC 333
(B) Secy. Minor Irrigation & Rural Engg. Services, U.P.v. Sahngoo Ram Arya (2002) 5 SCC 521
(C) Union Bank of India V. Prakash P. Hinduja (2003) 6 SCC 195
(D) None of the above

15. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr.P.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against
(A) Accused offender
(B) A surety
(C) A witness
(D) All the above

16. Who among the following has made distinction between distributive justice and corrective justice?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) John Stuart Mill
(D) John Austin

17. As per section 195A of IPC which was insereted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 the offence of threatening any person to give false evidence, is punishable with
(A) Imprisonment up to 7 years or with fine or with both
(B) Imprisonment up to 5 years or with fine or with both
(C) Imprisonment up to 3 years or with fine or with both
(D) Imprisonment up to 1 years or with fine or with both

18. Two ladies of young age, A & B fight with each other. A was having a blade with which ‘A’ inflicits injury on the face of B leaving a scar on the cheek of B. A is guilty of offence of causing
(A) Grievous hurt
(B) Grievous hurt by rash or negligent act
(C) Simple hurt
(D) Simple hurt by rash or negligent act

19. Under Section 13 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 which of the following shall fall in the category of unauthorized occupant/trespasser:
(A) A person who occupies the building without consent of landlord
(B) A person who occupies the building without consent of Rent Control and Eviction Officer.
(C) A person who occupies the building without an order of allotment.
(D) None of the above.

20. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
(A) Section 154
(B) Section 118
(C) Section 32
(D) Section 90A

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 11-20

11. Assertion (A) : The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939.
Reason (R) : The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the context of the Second World War.

12. Assertion (A) : Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason (R) : He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.

13. Assertion (A) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared; can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R) : The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.

14. Assertion (A) : Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason (R) : Marathas were the first to have clear concept of a united Indian nation.

15. Right to life emanates from-
(A) Article 21 and includes right to die
(B) Article 19 and does not include right to die
(C) Article 19 and 20 and does not include right to die
(D) Article 21 and does not include right to die

16. That "no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself" is a/an-
(A) directive principle which the State should apply while enacting criminal laws
(B) human right under the Universal declaration of Human Rights to which India is a party
(C) fundamental right
(D) ordinary constitutional right

17. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(B) The Governor of a State holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The Prime Minister can only be removed by a resolution passed by both houses of Parliament
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed at the pleasure of the President

18. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a State that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President of India under Article 356-
(A) has to proclaim President's rule in the State
(B) has to dismiss the State Govt. and dissolve the Legislative Assembly
(C) has to dismiss the Government but keep the Legislative Assembly in a State of suspended animation
(D) may refuse to impose President's rule in the State

19. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are-
(A) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(B) human rights
(C) transcendental rights
(D) part of basic structure or essential framework of the Constitution

20. An agreement made under mistake of fact, by both the parties, forming the essential subject matter of the agreement is-
(A) void
(B) voidable
(C) valid
(D) unenforceable

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Final Result | West Bengal District Judge (Entry Level) Exam 2014

Friday, September 12, 2014

High Court of Calcutta has declared the final result of West Bengal District Judge (Entry Level) Exam 2014.

The Interview/ Personality Test for West Bengal District Judge (Entry Level) Exam 2014 were held on 2nd and 3rd September 2014. Result of the candidates who have been called for the Interview/ Viva-voce for recruitment to the cadre of District Judge (Entry Level) in the West Bengal Judicial Service, is available at the official website of the High Court of Calcutta.

For further details and the result of the candidates from amongst the members of the Bar, visit the link below-
http://calcuttahighcourt.nic.in/Recruitments/pdf_files/RESULT_DRB_12092014.pdf

For the result of the candidates through Limited Competitive Exam, visit the link below-
http://calcuttahighcourt.nic.in/Recruitments/pdf_files/RESULT_LCE_12092014.pdf 

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Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 01-10

1. Whoever by words attempts to excite disaffection towards government established by law, commits the offence of-
(A) contempt of the government
(B) criminal conspiracy against the State
(C) abetting waging of war
(D) sedition

2. The general remedy in law of tort is-
(A) action for damages
(B) action for injunction
(C) specific restitution of property
(D) action for unliquidated damages

3. 'X' and 'Y' agree to commit theft in 'Z's house but no theft is actually committed. They are guilty of-
(A) no offence
(B) criminal conspiracy
(C) abetment by conspiracy
(D) abetment by instigation

4. Which of the following requirements form an essential element of the defence of fair comment in the tort of defamation?
I. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
II. It must be an assertion of fact.
III. It must be an expression of opinion.
IV. The comment must be fair.
V. The comment must not be intentional.
VI. The comment must not be malicious.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
Codes:
(A) I, II, IV and V
(B) I, III, IV and VI
(C) II, III, IV and V
(D) II, III, V and VI

5. 'A' bad consensual sexual relations with 'Z's wife. She gives to a valuable property which 'A' knows to belong to her husband, and she has no authority from 'Z' to give. 'A' takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by 'A'?
(A) criminal breach of trust and criminal misappropriation
(B) theft and criminal breach of trust
(C) theft
(D) criminal breach of trust

Directions. Q. 6 to 14: These questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer- sheet accordingly.

Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

6. Assertion (A) : The President of india can issue a proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1) on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Reason (R) : Where a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all the fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21.

7. Assertion (A) : Article 301 of the Constitution declares trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India free.
Reason (R) : The State can impose taxes which do not directly affect the freedom of trade.

8. Assertion (A) : The Security Council which functions continuously and adopts its own rules of procedure has its seat at New York.
Reason (R) : To suit the convenience, the Security Council meets at many places.

9. Assertion (A) : Inhuman body, liver has an important role in fat digestion.
Reason (R) : Liver produces two important fat- digestion enzymes.

10. Assertion (A) : Radio waves bend in a magnetic field.
Reason (R) : Radio waves are electro- magnetic in nature.

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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 01-10

1. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Topic of Cancer.
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Nagpur

2. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance?
(A) Article 215
(B) Article 275
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 353

3. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill
(D) Constitution Amendment Bill

4. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of
(A) Assam Himalayas
(B) Kumaon Himalayas
(C) Nepal Himalayas
(D) Punjab Himalayas

5. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy'?
(A) A.B. Vajpayee
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) P.C. Alexander
(D) Yashwant Sinha

6. Which country won the ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup- 2014 ?
(A) India
(B) South Africa
(C) Australia
(D) England

7. Which of the following is the lightest metal?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Lithium
(D) Lead

8. Nathu La pass connects.
(A) Sikkim and Tibet
(B) Himachal Pradesh to Tibet
(C) Uttrakhand to Tibet
(D) Arunachal Pradesh to China

9. Which of the following sets of bills is presented to the parliament along with budget?
(A) Direct taxes and indirect taxes bill
(B) Contingency bill and Appropriation bill
(C) Finance bill and Appropriation bill
(D) Finance bill and Contingency bill

10. Novation of a contract under Indian Contract Act means-
(A) Cancellation of contract
(B) Alteration of the contract
(C) The renewal of original contract
(D) Substitution of a new contract in place of original contract

 
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Notice regarding HCS (Judicial Branch)- 2014

Thursday, September 11, 2014

High Court of Punjab & Haryana has issued a public notice regarding HCS (Judicial Branch) 2014.

According to the notice, Haryana Public Service Commission is not accepting the applications for the HCS(JB) Examination 2014 due to technical problems with NIC. Fresh advertisement in this regard will be issued by HPSC very soon.

For further details and the full notice, visit the link below-
http://www.highcourtchd.gov.in/sub_pages/left_menu/recruitments/judicialofficers/openings/HCSnotice06092014.jpg 

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Final Marks Sheet/ Result | H.P. Additional District and Sessions Judges 2014

Wednesday, September 10, 2014

High Court of Himachal Pradesh has declared the Final Marks Sheet/ Result for the post of Additional District and Sessions Judges by direct recruitment for recruitment year 2014.

The Final Marks Sheet/ Result for the post of Additional District and Sessions Judges by direct recruitment for recruitment year 2014, is available at the official website of the High Court of Himachal Pradesh.

For further details, visit the link below-
http://hphighcourt.nic.in/pdf/ADJ10092014.pdf 

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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Monday, September 8, 2014

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

Law

Question Number: 141-150
 
141. Which one of the following is not an illustration of criminal force?
(a) A spits over B.
(b) A removes the veil of a lady B causing annoyance to her.
(c) A shakes his fist at B.
(d) A pours boiling water in the bucket from which B was bathing.

Ans. (c)

142. Which of the following is an offence against body, property, and reputation and feelings under Indian Penal Code 1860? The offence of
(a) kidnapping
(b) abduction
(c) rape
(d) cheating

Ans. (d)
143. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable
(a) Under Section 363 Indian Penal Code
(b) Under Section 509 Indian Penal Code
(c) Under Section 511 Indian Penal Code
(d) Under Section 354 Indian Penal Code

Ans. (d)

144. “Law is not universal in nature, like language, it varies with people and ages.”
This proposition follows from the theory of
(a) Social utilitarianism
(b) Volksgeist
(c) Social Solidarity
(d) Social Engineering

Ans. (b)

145. “Judges not only discover law but also they made law.” This view is supported by
(a) Gray
(b) Dicey
(c) Salmond
(d) Blackstone

Ans. (d)

146. Dealing with the sources of law who amongst the following was said that, “The Courts fuel – life into the dead words of stature”?
(a) Holland
(b) Gray
(c) Salmond
(d) Austin

Ans. (b)

147. The period of limitation within which defendants shall submit his written statement is
(a) 30 days from service of summons.
(b) 40 days from service of summons.
(c) 60 days from service of summons.
(d) 120 days from service of summons.

Ans. (d)

148. Judgement under Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 means
(a) a decree
(b) dismissal of appeal summarily
(c) statement of grounds of an order or decree
(d) All the above

Ans. (c)

149. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides provision for the following:
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) Appeal to the Supreme Court

Ans. (c)
 

150. “No right of action is conferred on a transfer in possession under an unregistered contract of sale.”
Which Section of Transfer of Property Act 1882 contains this Principle?
(a) Section 35
(b) Section 41
(c) Section 53
(d) Section 53-A

Ans. (d)


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Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | Law Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

Solved Paper | U.P. Judicial Service Pre 2012 | General Knowledge Paper | Uttar Pradesh Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Exam 2012

Uttar Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge (Junior Division) Preliminary Examination- 2012

General Knowledge

Question Number: 141-150
 
141. Monetary Policy in India is formulated and implemented by
(a) Government of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Indian Banks Association
(d) FICCI

Ans. (b)

142. Small Scale Industries are suited to Indian economic environment, because
(a) they lead to decentralization of economic activities
(b) they make use of local resources
(c) they are import-light and skill-light
(d) All the above.

Ans. (d)

143. Compilation of National Income is done by
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Central Services Organization
(d) Central Statistical Organization

Ans. (d)

144. Reserve Bank of India follows which system for the issue of currency?
(a) Minimum Reserve System
(b) Proportionate Reserve System
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

145. Which reason among the following explains the low growth rate of real National Income as compared to Monetary National Income?
(a) Population is increasing
(b) Inequalities are growing
(c) Price level is increasing
(d) Exports are lesser than imports

Ans. (c)

146. By December 31, 2010, which among the following countries had the largest Foreign Exchange Reserve?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Singapore
(d) India

Ans. (d)

147. The SEBI imposed a restriction on the money flow in the equity through “P-Notes”. What is the full form of “P-Notes”?
(a) Permanent Notes
(b) Purchase Notes
(c) Private Notes
(d) Participatory Notes

Ans. (d)

148. Which sector contributes the highest share in Gross Domestic Savings in India?
(a) Household Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Government Sector
(d) Private Corporate Sector

Ans. (a)

149. The rationale of Public Distribution System (PDS) is
(a) to control prices
(b) to reduce fluctuation in prices
(c) to ensure equitable distribution of essential goods
(d) All of the above.

Ans. (d)

150. Which of the following controls credit creation by the Commercial Banks in India?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Government of India
(d) State Bank of India 
Ans. (b)
 

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