Question Paper | HCS (J.B.) Pre 2010 | HCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Friday, January 31, 2014


HCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Question Number: 101-110

101. Who was the first Indian to go in space?
(a) Kalpana Chawla
(b) Kiran Bedi
(c) Rakesh Sharma
(d) Sunita Williams

102. The Rowlatt Act was passed in
(a) 1921
(b) 1917
(c) 1919
(d) None

103. Who was the first and last Indian Governor-General of Independent India?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Lord Canning

104. The first woman to become a Governor of a State in India
(a) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Fateema Biwi
(d) Sucheta Kriplani

105. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were hanged for their role in
(a) Kakori case
(b) Lahore Conspiracy case
(c) Meerut Conspiracy case
(d) all the above

106. The executive authority of the Union is vested by the Constitution in the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Cabinet
(d) Union Legislature

107. Right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law belongs to-
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President and Governor

108. Which one of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as President of India?
(a) M.Hidayatullah
(b) P.B. Gajendragadkar
(c) P.N. Bhagwati
(d) all of the above

109. An ordinance promulgated by the President -
(a) has an indefinite life
(b) one year
(c) must be laid before Parliament when it reassembles
(d) None of the above

110. To contest the election of Rajya Sabha. a person shall not be less than
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 40 years


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Question Paper | PCS (J.B.) Pre 2010 | PCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Thursday, January 30, 2014

PCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Question Number: 91-100

91. On account of mis-joinder or non-joinder of parties, under Order I, Rule 9 of CPC, the suit
(a) is liable to be dismissed
(b) cannot be dismissed
(c) may be dismissed or may not be dismissed as per the discretion of the court
(d) none of the above

92. Order II, Rule 2 of CPC does not apply to
(a) application for execution
(b) writ petitions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

93. Application for execution of a decree is to be made
(a) to the court which passed the decree
(b) to the district court
(c) to the High Court
(d) none of the above

94. Goods are said to be in a 'deliverable state' where
(a) they are in good condition
(b) they are in reasonable condition
(c) they have been delivered on time
(d) the buyer is bound to take their delivery under contract

95. A contract of sale of goods can be
(a) conditional
(b) absolute
(c) temporary
(d) either (a) or (b)

96 A disputed handwriting can be proved
(a) by calling an expert
(b) by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document
(c) by comparison of the two-admitted and disputed documents
(d) all of the above

97. Who was the first Indian Woman to be crowned Miss Universe?
(a) Rita Faria
(b) Zeenat Arnan
(c) Suslunita Sen
(d) Aishwarya Rai

98. A dying declaration to be admissible
(a) must be made before a Magistrate
(b) must be made before the police officer
(c) may be made before a doctor or a private person
(d) may be made either before a Magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person

99. A will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness
(a) when it is registered
(b) when it is unregistered
(c) when it is admitted
(d) all of the above

100. After re-examination of a witness, the adverse party has a
(a) right to further cross-examine the witness afresh in general
(b) has no right to further cross-examine the witness
(c) right to further cross-examine the witness only when a new fact is introduced in the re-examination
(d) either (a) or (b)


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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012


Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 91-100

91. Against an arder of release passed by the District Magistrate under section 16 of U.R Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972-
(A) an appeal is maintainable before the District Judge
(B) an appeal is maintainable before the Commissioner
(C) the revision is maintainable before the District Judge
(D) the revision is maintainable before the High Court.

92.. Under Seen 24 of the U.P. Urban Buildings (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 a tenant has option of re-entry-
(A ) when the tenant has been evicted on a suit filed by landlord for eviction on any of the grounds as mentioned under sub section (4) of Section 20 of the Act
(B) when the tenant vacates the premises on a promise made by landlord to permit re-entry after reconstruction of the building
(C) when the landlord after release under section 21(1) (b) of the Act demolishes the building and constructs new building
(D) when the tenant vacates the premises temporarily.

93. An elected member of the municipal board can be removed by-
(A) a resolution passed by municipal board by simple majority
(B) a resolution passed by municipal board by 2/3rd majority
(C) an order passed by the State Government
(D) an order passed by the President of the Municipal Board.

94. The Gram Sabha under the U.R Panchayat Raj Act, 1947 means-
(A) a body consisting of all adult males residing in Gram Sabha
(B) a body consisting of all adult males and females residing in Gram Sabha
(C) a body consisting of all the persons registered in the electoral rolls
(D) a body consisting of all inhabitants residing in Gram Sabha.

95. The Development Authority under the U.R Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973 can make any amendment in the zonal development plan as it thinks fit-
(A) which amendments in its opinion effect important alterations in the character of the plan
(B) which amendments in its opinion relate to the extent of the land uses
(C) which amendments in its opinion do not relate to the standards or population density
(D) which amendments in its opinion relate to the standards or population density.

96. Wbat is the maximum area which can be allotted to an agricultural labourer of the of the village for abadi site under the U.P.Z.A. & L.R. Rules, 1952?
(A) 1oo square meters
(B) 250 square meters
(C) 50 square meters
(D) No maximum limit prescribed.

97. When a female bhumidhar or asami other than a bhumidhar or asami mentioned in Sections 171&172 of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act dies, her interest in the holding shall devolve on which of her following heirs, first to the exclusion of others-
(A) Sister’s son
(B) Sister
(C) Brother
(D) Brother’s son.

98. Where the office of Pradhan is vacant by resignation of previous incumbent, which of the following procedures be adopted for discharging the duties of Pradhan?
(A) The Gram Sabha shall pass a resolution by 2/3rd majority electing any other person to discharge the duties of Pradhan
(B) The Gram Panchayat shall pass a resolution electing any member of Gram Panchayat to act as Pradhan
(C) The Up-Pradhan shall discharge duties of Pradhan till fresh election is held for the office of Pradhan
(D) The prescribed authority shall nominate a member of the Gram Panchayat to discharge the duties of Pradhan.
99. A bhumidhar or asami belonging to Scheduled Tribes can transfer any land by way of lease to a person belonging to which of the following categories?
(A) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes
(B) A person not belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes with prior permission of Assistant Collector First Class
(C) A person belonging to Scheduled Castes with the permission of Assistant Collector.
(D) A person belonging to Scheduled Tribes.

100. By-laws of a Municipal Board can be framed in which of following manners? .
(A) The State Government shall frame by-laws for the Municipal Board.
(B) The by-laws of the Municipal Board can be framed by passing a resolution by the Municipal Board.
(C) The by-laws can be framed by Municipality only by a special resolution after previous publication.
(D) The by-law can be framed by the President of the Municipal Board


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Question Paper | HCS (J.B.) Pre 2010 | HCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Wednesday, January 29, 2014


HCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Question Number: 91-100

91. Who can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) None of these

92. The right to Constitutional remedies in India is available to
(a) Citizens of India only
(b) All persons, in case of infringement of any Fundamental Right
(c) All people, for enforcing any of the Fundamental Rights, conferred on them
(d) An aggrieved individual alone

93. A command asking a public authority to perform its public duty is called the writ of
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Quo warranto
(c) Mandamus
(d) Prohibition

94. An another name of mercy killing is
(a) Final exit
(b) Euthanasia
(c) Murphy's death
(d) None of these

95. Every person who is arrested or detained is required to be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 72 hours
(d) None of these

96. Ownership and possession are
(a) same
(b) similar
(c) different
(d) identical

97. When a child is born alive which one is true about him?
(a) He is considered to be a person in the eye of law
(b) He is considered even in womb to be in existence
(c) He is considered to be capable of owning personal rights
(d) All of the above

98. Locus Standi means
(a) one's personal interest
(b) right to sue
(c) right to be heard
(d) right to intervene

99. A contract is -
(a) An agreement enforceable bv law
(b) A set of promises
(c) An agreement not enforceable by law
(d) A promise to do something or abstain from doing something

100. Which is the world's highest battle ground?
(a) Kargil
(b) Jojila
(c) Siachen
(d) None of the above


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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009


Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 91-100

91. For summoning an accused under Section 319 Cr.P.C.-
(A) statement under 161 Cr.P.C. is relevant
(B) statement on oath in the trial is relevant
(C) both the above statements are relevant
(D) None of the above

92. Ordinarily place of trial is-
(A) where the offence has been committed
(B) where the victim resides
(C) where the accused resides
(D) where the FIR is lodged

93. Statement under Section 161 of Cr.P.C. can be used to-
(A) corroborate the statement in court
(B) corroborate and contradict statement in court
(C) contradict the statement in court
(D) can not be utilized for any purpose

94. Before being summoned, the accused has got a right to-
(A) participate in the proceeding
(B) no right to participate in the proceeding
(C) has no right at all
(D) can watch the proceedings but can not participate

95. Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate with a view to-
(A) find out a prima-facie case
(B) convict the accused
(C) authorize remand of the accused
(D) release the accused under Section 436

96. Warrant case means a case-
(A) in which a police officer can not arrest without warrant
(B) in which the court, in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
(C) relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
(D) relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years

97. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under Section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction?
(A) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
(B) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
(C) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
(D) Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or not

98. Time prescribed for filing which of the followings cannot be extended or condoned by applying provisions of Section 5 of the Limitation Act?
(A) Revision under Section 115 C.P.C.
(B) Application for execution under Order XXI C.P.C.
(C) Appeal under Section 96, 100 and 104 C.P.C.
(D) Application for substitution under Order XXII C.P.C.

99. Time for instituting a suit can be enlarged by invoking which of the following provisions?
(A) Section 151 C.P.C.
(B) Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963
(C) Section 148 C.P.C.
(D) None of the above

100. An application for execution of a decree is filed with some delay i.e. beyond prescribed period of limitation-
(A) delay can be condoned by invoking Section 5 of the Limitation Act
(B) delay can be condoned under Section 148 C.P.C.
(C) delay can be condoned under the inherent powers of the court under Section 151 C.P.C.
(D) None of the above


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Question Paper | PCS (J.B.) Pre 2010 | PCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Tuesday, January 28, 2014


PCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Question Number: 81-90

81. In a summons case, instituted on a complaint, the accused having been summoned is liable to be acquitted under section 256 of Cr.P.C.
(a) on account of death of the complainant
(b) on account of non-appearance of the complainant
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

82. Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per section 468 of Cr.P.C. is
(a) six months
(b) one year
(c) two years
(d) three years

83. If the investigation is not completed within 90 days or 60 days as the case may be, and the accused is in custody, on the expiry of said period the accused is entitled to be
(a) discharged
(b) released on bail on making an application for release on bail
(c) released on bail without making an application for release on bail
(d) acquitted

84. A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of
(a) 45 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 60 days

85. A decision in a suit may operate as res-judicata against persons not expressly named as parties to the suit by virtue of explanation
(a) III to Section 11 of CPC
(b) V to Section 11 of CPC
(c) VI to Section 11 of CPC
(d) IV to Section 11 of CPC

86. A fresh suit on the same cause of action is not barred when
(a) rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC
(b) dismissed under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC
(c) dismissed under Order IX, Rule 3 of CPC
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c)

87. A judgment can be reviewed on the ground of
(a) discovery of new & important evidence, not within the knowledge of the party concerned
(b) mistake of error of fact or law on the face of the record
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of the above

88. A person is an indigent person within the meaning of Order 33, Rule 1 of CPC, if he is not possessed of
(a) sufficient means to pay the fee payable on the plaint
(b) any means to pay the fee payable on the plaint ~
(c) sufficient means for his livelihood
(d) none of the above

89. An ex-parte decree can be set aside on the ground of
(a) summons not duly served
(b) being prevented by any sufficient cause from appearance
(c) only (a) is correct
(d) both (a) and (b)

90. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, orders etc. can be corrected under
(a) Section 152 of CPC
(b) Section 154 of CPC
(c) Section 155 ofCPC
(d) Section 153 of CPC


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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2012 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012


Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2012

Question Number: 81-90

81. The accused inflicted injuries on non-vital parts of the deceased which were not found to be sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death but it was proved that he inflicted the injuries with a nowledge that with these injuries the victim was likely to die. The case would be punishable under section-
(A) 302 I.P.C.
(B) 303 I.P.C.
(C) 304 Part I I.P.C.
(D) 304 Part II I.P.C.

82. The termination of pregnancy will attract penal provisions of Section 312 I.P.C. if it is done-
(A) to prevent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman
(B) in view of the substantial risk that if the child is born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
(C) as the pregnancy is alleged by pregnant woman to have been caused by rape
(D) None of the above.

83. Which kind of hurt is not grievous?
(A) Any hurt which endangers life.
(B) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of 15 days in severe bodily pain.
(C) Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.
(D) Privation of any member or joint.

84. ‘A’ finds a ring belonging to ‘Z’ on a table in the house which ‘Y’ occupies . A dishonestly removes the ring. A has committed which of the following offence?
(A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Criminal misappropriation of property
(C) Theft
(D) Dishonestly receiving stolen property.

85. Theory of retribution-
(A) is a theory in which exemplary punishment shall be given to criminal
(B) is a theory that a criminal should be punished in proportion to his offence
(C) is a theory in which the criminal must be reformed
(D) is a theory in which criminal should be sent to open jail.

86. ‘A’ is a good swimmer looks ‘B’ drowning but does not try to save ‘A’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of-
(A) murder
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) causing death due to negligent act.
(D) not committed any offence.

87. In which of the following sections of U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1955, a revenue court can grant injunction?
(A) Section 229-A
(B) Section 229-B
(C) Section 229-C
(D) Section 229-D.

88. Re-possession of the leased land after eviction is punishable under which Section of the U.R Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act?
(A) 115-C
(B) 122-F
(C) 198-A
(D) 209.

89. Section 11A of the UP. Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 bars-
(A) a fresh suit before civil Court
(B) a fresh suit before revenue court
(C) objection pertaining to title
(D) objection pertaining to allotment of chaks.

90. Section 52-A of the U.R Consolidation of Holdings Act, 1953 empowers the-
(A) Director of Consolidation to make provisions for chak roads or chak guls
(B) Deputy Director of Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guIs
(C) Collector to provide for chak roads or chak guls
(D) Settlement Officer Consolidation to provide for chak roads or chak guls.


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Question Paper | HCS (J.B.) Pre 2010 | HCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Monday, January 27, 2014


HCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Question Number: 81-90

81. First Chief Minister of Haryana State was
(a) B D Sharma
(b) Bansi Lal
(c) Rao Birender Singh
(d) Devi Lal

82. Which of the following statements is/are correct:
1. A claim for damages arising out of breach of conduct is not debt.
2. A person who enters into a contract with Government does not necessarily thereby undertake any public duty.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. Which of the following agreement(s) is/are void?
1. Agreement without consideration.
2.Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
3.Agreement effected by fraud.

(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

84. 'A' obtained a sum of Rs. 10,000/- from 'B' by putting 'B' in fear of death. Which one of the following offences was committed by 'A' ?
(a) Cheating
(b) Robbery
(c) Mischief
(d) Extortion

85. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute:
(a) affray
(b) assault
(c) rioting
(d) unlawful assembly

86. 'A' sees 'B' drowning, but does not save him. 'B' is drowned. 'A' has committed:
(a) the offence of murder
(b) the offence of abetment of suicide
(c) the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) no offence

87. 'A' has knocked down two teeth of 'B'. 'A' has committed the offence of:
(a) grievous hurt
(b) simple hurt
(c) culpable homicide
(d) attempt to hurt

88. Which one of the following statements correctly define the term 'murder' ?
(a) act by which the death is caused must have been done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death
(b) Death is caused with the knowledge that, he is likely to cause death by his act
(c) Death is caused with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause death of the person to whom the injury is caused
(d) Death is caused under grave and sudden provocation

89. The Constitution is declared to have been adopted & enacted by the
(a) Constituent assembly
(b) People of India
(c) Indian President
(d) Indian Parliament

90. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India is related to liberty of press?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22


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Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2009 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009


Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 81-90

81. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants have been given in Article-
(A) 311
(B) 300
(C) 44
(D) None of the above

82. Section 114 Evidence Act applies to-
(A) admissibility of facts
(B) relevancy of facts
(C) relevancy of opinions
(D) legal presumptions

83. The Indian Evidence Act applies to-
(A) proceedings before tribunals
(B) affidavits presented to any court or officer
(C) proceedings before an arbitrator
(D) None of the above

84. Confessions made while in custody of police are-
(A) irrelevant
(B) admissible
(C) inadmissible
(D) relevant

85. Opinion of Experts is relevant under-
(A) Section 45 of Evidence Act
(B) Section 46 of Evidence Act
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above

86. Leading questions can generally be asked in-
(A) Examination in chief
(B) re-examination
(C) cross examination
(D) All the above

87. A is accused of B’s murder. Which of the following will be a ‘relevant fact’?
(A) A’s going to field with a club
(B) A’s saying shortly before the incident that he will take a revenge of his father’s death
(C) A’s fleeing before the police arrived at village
(D) All of the above

88. Test Identification Parade under Section 9 of Evidence Act should be taken by whom?
(A) Magistrate
(B) Police officer not below the rank of Sub-inspector
(C) Any person
(D) All of the above

89. Which of the following is relevant and may be received in evidence?
(A) Tape recordings
(B) Dog-tracking
(C) Narco analysis test
(D) All of the above

90. “Accused statement under Section 313 Cr.P.C. is to be recorded on oath”-
(A) above statement is true
(B) above statement is false
(C) above statement is partially true
(D) None of above


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Question Paper | PCS (J.B.) Pre 2010 | PCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Sunday, January 26, 2014


PCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010

Question Number: 71-80

71. The first draft of the Constitution was published in
(a) November, 1947
(b) January, 1948
(c) February, 1948
(d) November, 1948

72. This used to be a Fundamental Right but is now a legal right only
(a) Cultural and Educational Rights
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Religious Freedom

73. In the recent proposed amendment in Cr.P.c. the police may arrest a person
(a) after obtaining written orders from Magistrate
(b) without orders of magistrate
(c) after obtaining orders from Deputy Commissioner
(d) after giving reasons in writing

74. Mter completion of investigation, the police is to submit a final report to the Magistrate. The Magistrate
(a) is bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and accept the same if the police recommended that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding further
(b) is not bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and may order further investigation
(c) may issue a process against the accused person(s)
(d) both (b) & (c)

75. Addition or alteration of charge has been provided
(a) under section 214 of Cr.P.c.
(b) under section 215 of Cr.P.c.
(c) under section 216 of Cr.P.c.
(d) under section 218 of Cr.P.C.

76. An act which would otherwise be crime may in some cases be excused if the person accused of it shows that all except
(a) it was done only in order to avoid consequences
(b) nothing was done than was reasonably necessary
(c) the evil inflicted was not disproportionate to the evil avoided
(d) none of the above

77. Cognizance of offence under Section 498A of IPC can be taken by a Court
(a) on a police report
(b) on the complaint of the person aggrieved
(c) on the complaint of father/ mother of the person aggrieved
(d) all the above

78. During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by
(a) any police officer
(b) the investigating officer
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)

79. Error or omission in framing of charge
(a) is material in all circumstances shall vitiate the trial
(b) is material only if it has occasioned a failure of justice to the accused
(c) is material and the accused is liable to be acquitted
(d) both (a) & (c)

80. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right
(a) by the police officer
(b) by the court
(c) both by the police officer & the court
(d) neither (a) nor (b)


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Question Paper | PCS (J.B.) Pre 2010 | PCS (Judicial Branch) (Preliminary) Examination- 2010SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend

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