Showing posts with label Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 Question Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 Question Paper. Show all posts

Sunday, September 28, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 81-85

81. For an action in torts-
(A) some legal right should be damaged
(B) some moral right should be damaged
(C) some rights should be damaged
(D) None of these.

82. The difference between the maxims injuria sine damno and Damnum sine injuria lies in the fact that-
(A) the formar contemplates no wrong while the latter has damage with wrongs
(B) the formar contemplates moral wrongs while the latter contemplates wrongs
(C) the formar contemplates legal wrong with remedy while the latter moral wrongs without damages
(D) the latter contemplates moral wrongs with damage but not vice versa

83. 'X' was working at a place over which a crane swung carrying heavy stones. Both 'X' and his employer knew that the crane so swung and recognized the possibility of danger if a stone fell from the crane. No warning was given 'X' of the swinging time of the crane whenever this took place. Once a heavy stone fell from the swinging crane and injured 'X'. In a claim for torts, the employer pleaded that there was no liability on the basis of the principle volenti non fit injuria. This plea-
(A) is not correct as knowledge of the risk is not the same thing as acceptance of the risk
(B) is correct as 'X' knew the risk
(C) is for the Judge to consider at his discretion
(D) is quite novel without an authoritative decision for or against

84. 'A' had only one good eye. He was employed by 'B' on a work in which some risk to the eye by injury was clear. However, the risk was not so great as to necessitate supply of protective goggles to the workmen with both eyes good. 'B' knew the fact that 'A' had only one good eye but did not supply protective goggles to 'A' because no other workman was supplied with protective goggles. During the course of employment, the good eye of 'A' was injured. 'A' brought an action in tort.
(A) 'A' cannot succeed as he took up the work well knowing that risk injury to the good eye existed
(B) 'B' was liable because although he knew that 'A' had only one good eye and its loss would mean blindness, yet, he did not supply 'A' with protective goggles
(C) Both 'B' and 'A' are at fault and the law treats them as equal
(D) None of these

85. The element of malice-
(A) is not essential in any tort
(B) is essential in all torts
(C) is essential in the torts of defamation, malicious prosecution, willful and malicious damage to property, maintenance and slander of life
(D) is essential in the torts of defamation and malicious prosecution only

Friday, September 26, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 71-80

71. What of the following conditions must be fulfilled in order to pass the test of permissible classification under Art. 14?
(A) The classification must be founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from others left out of the group
(B) The differentia must have a rational relation to the object sought to be achieved by the State in question
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

72. Which of the following Article deals with 'Right to Freedom'?
(A) Art. 19
(B) Art. 20
(C) Art. 21, 22
(D) All of the above

73. Art. 16(1) lays down there shall be equal opportunity for citizens in matters relating to 'employment' or 'appointment to any office' under the State. The guarantee in clause (1) will cover-
(A) initial appointments only
(B) termination of employment
(C) matters relating to salary, periodical increments, leave gratuity, pension, age of superannuation etc.
(D) all of the above

74. In which case the Supreme Court held that a law depriving a person of 'personal liberty' has not only to stand the test of Art. 21 but it must stand the test of Art. 19 and Art. 14 of the Constitution?
(A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. Union Government
(B) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union Govt.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

75. Which of the following is not an essential for the application of double jeopardy rule?
(A) the person must be accused of an offence
(B) the proceeding or the prosecution must have taken place before a Court or judicial tribunal
(C) the person must have been prosecuted or punished in the previous proceeding and the offence must be the same for which he was prosecuted or punished in the previous proceeding
(D) all the above are essential for the application of double jeopardy rule

76. Art. 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate by law Fundamental Rights in the application to-
(A) the members of the armed forces
(B) the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
(C) the persons employed in any bureau or other organisation established by the State for purposes of intelligence and persons employed in connection with the tele- communication system set up for purposes of any force, bureau or organisation referred in Art. 33
(D) all of the above

77. The provisions of the Constitution can be amended by-
(A) simple majority
(B) special majority
(C) special majority and ratification by resolution passed by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures
(D) All of the above

78. In which case the Supreme Court has held that the fundamental right may be amended but the basic structure or framework of the Constitution cannot be amended?
(A) Sankari Pd. Vs. Union Govt. case
(B) Golakhnath Vs. State of Punjab case
(C) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala case
 
79. If the property is lent for a fixed time or delivered as security for the repayment of a debt-
(A) the person who lends the property or delivered as security is in mediate possession of it
(B) the person who lends the property or delivered as security is in immediate possession of it
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

80. "Where an innkeeper seizes the goods of his guest, who has failed to pay his bill, there is an acquisition of possession against the will of previous possessor, but it is a rightful taking of possession.... where a thief steals a watch, this is still an acquisition of possession against the will of the true owner, but it is wrongful i.e. not in pursuance of legal right."
This statement was given by-
(A) Salmond
(B) Savigny
(C) Keeten
(D) Friemann

 

Wednesday, September 24, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 61-70

61. I am not.....to sell you my house unless you offer a more.....price.
(A) agree, better
(B) prepared, realistic
(C) ready, correct
(D) having, actual

62. Due to.....rainfall this year, there will be.....cut in water supply.
(A) scanty, substantial
(B) meager, least
(C) sufficient, no
(D) surplus, abundant

63. In his....., he followed the.....course.
(A) agony, funny
(B) ignorance, wrong
(C) hurry, diversified
(D) predicament, proper

64. Though he is reputed for his technical....., his books were sadly.....of the work of others as he lacked originality.
(A) advice, unconscious
(B) skill, independent
(C) knowledge, ignorant
(D) expertise, derivative

65. In.....of International matters, there is always an element of risk in.....one might do.
(A) view, whichever
(B) many, doing
(C) defence, wrong
(D) case, whatever

66. Santosh looked very happy and.....when he heard that his proposed scheme was.....by the committee.
(A) energetic, rejected
(B) elated, accepted
(C) satisfied, stalled
(D) disconsolate, approved

67. We must prevent endangered wild animal species from becoming.....in order that our future generation may.....the great diversity of animal life.
(A) rare, escape
(B) volatile, notice
(C) powerful, protect
(D) extinct, enjoy

68. India is a Sovereign because-
(A) the Constitution recognises the legal supermacy of another country over India
(B) the Constitution does not recognise the legal supermacy of another country over India
(C) India is free from any type of external control
(D) both (B) and (C)

69. The Political Sovereignty lies with the-
(A) Parliament of India
(B) People of India
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) The Constitution of India

70. The term 'State' as defined in Art. 12 of the Constitution includes-
(A) Govt. and Parliament of India
(B) Govt. and the Legislature of each of the States
(C) All local and other authority with the territory of or under the control of the Govt. of India
(D) All the above

Monday, September 22, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 51-60

51. Yuan is the currency of-
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar

52. Massive deforestation causes-
(A) soil erosion
(B) floods
(C) famine
(D) None of these

53. Dakshin Gangotri is a/ an-
(A) second source of the river Ganga
(B) unmanned station located in Antarctica for continuous weather and scientific monitorings
(C) river- valley project in Andhra Pradesh
(D) island in the Indian Ocean near Antarctica

54. The continent that has occupied the largest area in the equatorial belt is-
(A) South America
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) Asia

55. Which one of the following has the highest fuel value?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Charcoal
(C) Natural Gas
(D) Gasoline

56. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through-
I. Blood
II. Lungs
III. Tissue

The correct sequence of transportation is-
(A) I, II, III
(B) III, I, II
(C) II, I, III
(D) I, III, II

Directions (Q. 57 to 67): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces in the given sentences. Below each sentence there are four pair of words denoted by numbers (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete:

57. The Deputy Manager.....to resign because all his proposals were.....down by his superiors.
(A) planned, thrown
(B) gave, held
(C) began, kept
(D) threatened, turned

58. The counter clerk was very busy and.....not pay.....to Sameer's request.
(A) can, help
(B) could, cooperation
(C) had, cash
(D) did, attention

59. She was.....because all her palm had gone......
(A) happy, selected
(B) dejected, splendidly
(C) distraught, awry
(D) frustrated, magnificently

60. Ravi.....a bit.....he was not invited by his friend to attend the party.
(A) annoyed, before
(B) angered, since
(C) expressed, than
(D) grumbled, when

 

Saturday, September 20, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 41-50

41. Sarkaria Commission was set up to-
(A) make necessary investigations and suggestions regarding the problem of Punjab
(B) review the Centre- State relations
(C) investigate the riots that took place in Delhi in 1984
(D) investigate the assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi

42. Rajya Sabha is considered to be a permanant House because-
(A) its members never retire
(B) the House is never dissolved
(C) only one third of its members retire after every two years
(D) none of these

43. By how many States must a Constitution Bill be passed before it is given assent by the President of India?
(A) All
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) None of these

44. Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy along with specific instructions to-
(A) balkanise the Indian sub- continent
(B) keep India united if possible
(C) accept Jinnah's demand for Pakistan
(D) persuade the Congress to accept partition

45. The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by the-
(A) Greeks
(B) Shakas
(C) Parthians
(D) Mughals

46. The Mongols under Gengis Khan invaded India during the reign of-
(A) Balban
(B) Feroze Tughlaq
(C) Iltutmish
(D) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

47. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a Constitution for India?
(A) Swaraj Party in 1934
(B) Congress Party in 1936
(C) Muslim League in 1942
(D) All Parties Conference in 1946

48. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from-
(A) West Bengal
(B) the Bombay Presidency
(C) the then Madhya Bharat
(D) Punjab

49. At the time of India's Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was-
(A) a member of Congress Working Committee
(B) not a member of the Congress
(C) the President of the Congress
(D) the General Secretary of the Congress

50. The most short- lived of all of Britain's constitutional experiments in India was the-
(A) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(C) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(D) Government of India Act of 1919

Thursday, September 18, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 31-40

31. Which one among the following States of India has the lowest density of population?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Meghaiaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Sikkim

32. Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular indignation that led to the massacre by the British at Jallianwala Bagh?
(A) The Arms Act
(B) The Public Safety Act
(C) The Rowlatt Act
(D) The Vernacular Act

33. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
(A) Hukum Singh
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) U.N. Dhebar

34. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(A) Environmental Protection
(B) Olympic Games
(C) Journalism
(D) Civil Aviation

35. In which one of the following districts, large reserves of diamond- bearing kimberlite have been discovered in the recent past?
(A) Hoshangabad
(B) Raipur
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Warangal

36. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament seperately, by special majority?
(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill
(D) Constitution Amendment Bill

37. As per the Human Development Index given by the UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
(A) India-Sri Lanka-Pakistan-Maldives
(B) Maldives-Sri Lanka-India-Pakistan
(C) Sri Lanka-Maldives-India-Pakistan
(D) Maldives-India-Pakistan-Sri Lanka

38. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) About one-third of the area of the country records more than 750 mm of annual rainfall
(B) The dominant source of irrigation in the country is wells
(C) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in the northern plains of the country
(D) The mountain areas account for about 30 percent of the surface area of the country

39. The President of India is elected indirectly by the electoral college consisting of the elected members of-
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
(D) Lok sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative assemblies of the States

40. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains-
(A) States and Union Territories
(B) Salaries of the President, Governors of States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc.
(C) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
(D) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha

Tuesday, September 16, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 21-30
 
21. Which two countries follow China and India in the decreasing order of their populations?
(A) Brazil and the US
(B) The US and Indonesia
(C) Canada and Malaysia
(D) Russia and Nigeria

22. Which among the Indian languages one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi -
(A) Telgu
(B) Tamil
(C) Bengali
(D) Malayalam

23. During the time of which Mughal emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India-
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shah Jahan
(D) Aurangzeb

24. In Chhattisgarh, which of the following minerals are found in natural form?
I. Bauxite
II. Dolomite
III. Iron-ore
IV. Tin

Codes:
(A) Only I,II and III
(B) Only I and III
(C) Only II and IV
(D) I,II,III and IV

25. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?
(A) Police Reforms
(B) Tax Reforms
(C) Reforms in Technical Education
(D) Administrative Reforms

26. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya

27. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket-
I. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its Oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space.
II. A rocket carries its own supply of Oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) both I and II
(D) neither I nor II

28. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
(A) Dye laser
(B) Gas laser
(C) Semiconductor laser
(D) Excimer laser

29. How do most insects respire?
(A) through skin
(B) through gills
(C) by lungs
(D) by tracheal system

30. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system?
(A) Trypsin
(B) Gastrin
(C) Ptyalin
(D) Pepsin

Sunday, September 14, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 11-20

11. Assertion (A) : The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939.
Reason (R) : The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the context of the Second World War.

12. Assertion (A) : Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason (R) : He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.

13. Assertion (A) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared; can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R) : The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.

14. Assertion (A) : Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason (R) : Marathas were the first to have clear concept of a united Indian nation.

15. Right to life emanates from-
(A) Article 21 and includes right to die
(B) Article 19 and does not include right to die
(C) Article 19 and 20 and does not include right to die
(D) Article 21 and does not include right to die

16. That "no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself" is a/an-
(A) directive principle which the State should apply while enacting criminal laws
(B) human right under the Universal declaration of Human Rights to which India is a party
(C) fundamental right
(D) ordinary constitutional right

17. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(B) The Governor of a State holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The Prime Minister can only be removed by a resolution passed by both houses of Parliament
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed at the pleasure of the President

18. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a State that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President of India under Article 356-
(A) has to proclaim President's rule in the State
(B) has to dismiss the State Govt. and dissolve the Legislative Assembly
(C) has to dismiss the Government but keep the Legislative Assembly in a State of suspended animation
(D) may refuse to impose President's rule in the State

19. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are-
(A) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(B) human rights
(C) transcendental rights
(D) part of basic structure or essential framework of the Constitution

20. An agreement made under mistake of fact, by both the parties, forming the essential subject matter of the agreement is-
(A) void
(B) voidable
(C) valid
(D) unenforceable

Friday, September 12, 2014

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 01-10

1. Whoever by words attempts to excite disaffection towards government established by law, commits the offence of-
(A) contempt of the government
(B) criminal conspiracy against the State
(C) abetting waging of war
(D) sedition

2. The general remedy in law of tort is-
(A) action for damages
(B) action for injunction
(C) specific restitution of property
(D) action for unliquidated damages

3. 'X' and 'Y' agree to commit theft in 'Z's house but no theft is actually committed. They are guilty of-
(A) no offence
(B) criminal conspiracy
(C) abetment by conspiracy
(D) abetment by instigation

4. Which of the following requirements form an essential element of the defence of fair comment in the tort of defamation?
I. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
II. It must be an assertion of fact.
III. It must be an expression of opinion.
IV. The comment must be fair.
V. The comment must not be intentional.
VI. The comment must not be malicious.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
Codes:
(A) I, II, IV and V
(B) I, III, IV and VI
(C) II, III, IV and V
(D) II, III, V and VI

5. 'A' bad consensual sexual relations with 'Z's wife. She gives to a valuable property which 'A' knows to belong to her husband, and she has no authority from 'Z' to give. 'A' takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by 'A'?
(A) criminal breach of trust and criminal misappropriation
(B) theft and criminal breach of trust
(C) theft
(D) criminal breach of trust

Directions. Q. 6 to 14: These questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer- sheet accordingly.

Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

6. Assertion (A) : The President of india can issue a proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1) on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Reason (R) : Where a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all the fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21.

7. Assertion (A) : Article 301 of the Constitution declares trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India free.
Reason (R) : The State can impose taxes which do not directly affect the freedom of trade.

8. Assertion (A) : The Security Council which functions continuously and adopts its own rules of procedure has its seat at New York.
Reason (R) : To suit the convenience, the Security Council meets at many places.

9. Assertion (A) : Inhuman body, liver has an important role in fat digestion.
Reason (R) : Liver produces two important fat- digestion enzymes.

10. Assertion (A) : Radio waves bend in a magnetic field.
Reason (R) : Radio waves are electro- magnetic in nature.