Sunday, September 14, 2014

Tripura Judicial Service Grade-I Exam 2014 | Recruitment

High Court of Tripura invites applications from eligible candidates for Grade-I of Tripura Judicial Service Examination 2014.

Name of Post: Grade-I of Tripura Judicial Service
No. of Posts: 04
Pay-Scale: Rs. 51550-63070

Age Limit: 35-45 years
Minimum Qualifications: Advocates with atleast 07 years practice

Last Date: 31.10.2014

For further details of recruitment advertisement and the format of Application Form, visit the link below-

Judicial Indexer in Orissa High Court | Recruitment Notification

Orissa High Court invites applications in the prescribed format for the following post:

Name of Post: Judicial Indexer
No. of Posts: 01 (One)
Pay-Scale: Rs. 9300- 34800

Age Limit: 18- 35 years (as on 01.01.2014)
Minimum Qualifications: Law Graduates Staff Members of the Court and the Advocates having three years of practice at Bar.

Last Date: 13.10.2014

For further details and Application Form, visit the link below-
 

Question Paper | UPHJS Pre 2014 | Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2014

Uttar Pradesh Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Examination- 2014

Question Number: 11-20

11. A witness, who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court; evidence so given shall be deemed to be-
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Documentary evidence
(D) Oral evidence

12. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under-
(A) Order V Rule 9A C.P.C.
(B) Order V Rule 9 C.P.C.
(C) Order IV Rule 7 C.P.C.
(D) Order VI Rule 6 C.P.C.

13. ‘B’ takes a gold ring of ‘A’ out of ‘A’s possession without ‘A’s consent with the intention of keeping it till ‘A’ gives ‘B’ some money for its restoration to ‘A’, ‘B’ is guilty of-
(A) Cheating
(B) Criminal beach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriate of property
(D) Theft

14. The Magistrate cannot order investigation by CBI. It was held in:
(A) CBI V. State of Rajasthan (2001) 3 SCC 333
(B) Secy. Minor Irrigation & Rural Engg. Services, U.P.v. Sahngoo Ram Arya (2002) 5 SCC 521
(C) Union Bank of India V. Prakash P. Hinduja (2003) 6 SCC 195
(D) None of the above

15. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr.P.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against
(A) Accused offender
(B) A surety
(C) A witness
(D) All the above

16. Who among the following has made distinction between distributive justice and corrective justice?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) John Stuart Mill
(D) John Austin

17. As per section 195A of IPC which was insereted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 the offence of threatening any person to give false evidence, is punishable with
(A) Imprisonment up to 7 years or with fine or with both
(B) Imprisonment up to 5 years or with fine or with both
(C) Imprisonment up to 3 years or with fine or with both
(D) Imprisonment up to 1 years or with fine or with both

18. Two ladies of young age, A & B fight with each other. A was having a blade with which ‘A’ inflicits injury on the face of B leaving a scar on the cheek of B. A is guilty of offence of causing
(A) Grievous hurt
(B) Grievous hurt by rash or negligent act
(C) Simple hurt
(D) Simple hurt by rash or negligent act

19. Under Section 13 of the U.P. Urban Building (Regulation of Letting, Rent and Eviction) Act, 1972 which of the following shall fall in the category of unauthorized occupant/trespasser:
(A) A person who occupies the building without consent of landlord
(B) A person who occupies the building without consent of Rent Control and Eviction Officer.
(C) A person who occupies the building without an order of allotment.
(D) None of the above.

20. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
(A) Section 154
(B) Section 118
(C) Section 32
(D) Section 90A

Question Paper | Uttarakhand HJS Pre 2009 | Uttarakhand Higher Judicial Service (Preliminary) Exam- 2009

Uttarakhand Higher Judicial service (Preliminary) Examination- 2009

Question Number: 11-20

11. Assertion (A) : The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939.
Reason (R) : The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the context of the Second World War.

12. Assertion (A) : Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason (R) : He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.

13. Assertion (A) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared; can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R) : The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.

14. Assertion (A) : Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason (R) : Marathas were the first to have clear concept of a united Indian nation.

15. Right to life emanates from-
(A) Article 21 and includes right to die
(B) Article 19 and does not include right to die
(C) Article 19 and 20 and does not include right to die
(D) Article 21 and does not include right to die

16. That "no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself" is a/an-
(A) directive principle which the State should apply while enacting criminal laws
(B) human right under the Universal declaration of Human Rights to which India is a party
(C) fundamental right
(D) ordinary constitutional right

17. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(B) The Governor of a State holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The Prime Minister can only be removed by a resolution passed by both houses of Parliament
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed at the pleasure of the President

18. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a State that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President of India under Article 356-
(A) has to proclaim President's rule in the State
(B) has to dismiss the State Govt. and dissolve the Legislative Assembly
(C) has to dismiss the Government but keep the Legislative Assembly in a State of suspended animation
(D) may refuse to impose President's rule in the State

19. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are-
(A) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(B) human rights
(C) transcendental rights
(D) part of basic structure or essential framework of the Constitution

20. An agreement made under mistake of fact, by both the parties, forming the essential subject matter of the agreement is-
(A) void
(B) voidable
(C) valid
(D) unenforceable